Deck 12: Eyes

Question 1

Opacities of the red reflex may indicate the presence of:

A) hypertension.
B) hydrocephalus.
C) cataracts.
D) myopia.

Answer 1

cataracts.

Question 2

Examination to assess for extraocular muscle imbalance is conducted by:

A) comparing pupillary responses to different shapes.
B) having the patient follow your finger through planes.
C) inspecting slightly closed lids for fasciculations.
D) transilluminating the cornea with tangential light.

Answer 2

having the patient follow your finger through planes.

Question 3

Mrs. Alden is a 29-year-old pregnant patient in her third trimester. She tells you that her vision has been a little blurred, and she thinks she needs to get new contact lenses. You should advise her to:

A) get new lenses as soon as possible to avoid complications.
B) wait until several weeks after delivery to get new lenses.
C) go to the nearest emergency department for evaluation.
D) change her diet to include more yellow vegetables.

Answer 3

wait until several weeks after delivery to get new lenses.

Question 4

Mr. C's visual acuity is 20/50. This means that he:

A) can see 50% of what the average person sees at 20 feet.
B) has perfect vision when tested at 50 feet.
C) can see 20% of the letters on the chart's 20/50 line.
D) can read letters while standing 20 feet from the chart that the average person could read at 50 feet.

Question 5

When inspecting the region of the lacrimal gland, palpate:

A) the lower orbital rim, near the inner canthus.
B) in the area between the arch of the eyebrow and upper lid.
C) beneath the lower lid, adjacent to the inner canthus.
D) adjacent to the lateral aspect of the eye, just beneath the upper lid.

Question 6

You observe pupillary response as the patient looks at a distant object and then at an object held 10 cm from the bridge of the nose. You are assessing for:

A) confrontation reaction.
B) accommodation.
C) pupillary light reflex.
D) nystagmus.

Question 7

The criterion for determining the adequacy of a patient's visual field is:

A) the ability to discriminate primary colors.
B) the ability to discriminate details.
C) correspondence with the visual field of the examiner.
D) distance vision equal to that of an average person.

Question 8

A condition that typically develops by the age of 45 years is:

A) presbyopia.
B) hyperopia.
C) myopia.
D) astigmatism.

Question 9

Cupping of the optic disc may be a result of:

A) migraine headaches.
B) diabetes.
C) glaucoma.
D) dehydration

Question 10

A pterygium is more common in people heavily exposed to:

A) high altitudes.
B) tuberculosis.
C) ultraviolet light.
D) cigarette smoke.

Question 11

When drusen bodies are noted to be increasing in number or in intensity of color, the patient should be further evaluated with a(n):

A) Amsler grid.
B) Snellen E chart.
C) litmus test.
D) confrontation test.

Question 12

A condition in which the eyelids do not completely meet to cover the globe is called:

A) glaucoma.
B) lagophthalmos.
C) exophthalmos.
D) hordeolum.

Question 13

Ask the patient to look directly at the light of the ophthalmoscope when you are ready to examine the:

A) retina.
B) optic disc.
C) retinal vessels.
D) macula.

Question 14

Mrs. S. is a 69-year-old woman who presents for a physical examination. On inspection of her eyes, you note that the left upper eyelid droops, covering more of the iris than does the right. This is recorded as:

A) exophthalmos on the right.
B) ptosis on the left.
C) nystagmus on the left.
D) astigmatism on the right.

Question 15

Mr. Morris is a 38-year-old patient who presents to the clinic with complaints of allergies. An allergy can cause the conjunctiva to have a:

A) cobblestone pattern.
B) dry surface.
C) subconjunctival hemorrhage.
D) rust-colored pigment.

Question 16

Mr. Brown was admitted from the emergency department, and you are completing his physical examination. His pupils are 2 mm bilaterally, and you notice that they fail to dilate when the penlight is moved away. This is characteristic in patients who are or have been:

A) in a coma.
B) taking sympathomimetic drugs (cocaine).
C) taking opioid drugs (morphine).
D) treated for head trauma.

Question 17

Mr. Older is a 40-year-old patient who presents to the office for a follow-up eye examination after the diagnosis of myopia. To see retinal details in a myopic patient, you will need to:

A) adjust your ophthalmoscope into the plus lens.
B) move your ophthalmoscope backward.
C) move your hand farther forward.
D) turn your ophthalmoscope to a minus lens.

Question 18

Which finding, when seen in the infant, is ominous?

A) Difficulty tracking objects with the eyes
B) Appearing to have better peripheral than central vision
C) Blinking when bright light is directed at the face
D) White pupils on photographs

Question 19

If a patient has early papilledema, using an ophthalmoscope, the examiner will be able to detect:

A) dilated retinal veins.
B) retinal vein pulsations.
C) sharply defined optic discs.
D) visual defects.

Question 20

When testing corneal sensitivity controlled by cranial nerve V, you should expect the patient to respond with:

A) brisk blinking.
B) copious tearing.
C) pupil dilation.
D) reflex smiling.

Question 21

To differentiate between infants who have strabismus and those who have pseudostrabismus, use the:

A) confrontation test.
B) corneal light reflex.
C) E chart.
D) Amsler grid.

Question 22

Which maneuver can be done to reduce the systemic absorption of cycloplegic and mydriatic agents when examining a pregnant woman if the examination is mandatory?

A) Have the woman keep her eyes closed for several minutes.
B) Instill half the usual dosage.
C) Keep the patient supine, with her head turned and flexed.
D) Use nasolacrimal occlusion after instillation.

Question 23

Cotton wool spots are most closely associated with:

A) glaucoma.
B) normal aging processes.
C) hypertension.
D) eye trauma.

Question 24

Changes seen in proliferative diabetic retinopathy are the result of:

A) anoxic stimulation.
B) macular damage.
C) papilledema.
D) minute hemorrhages.

Question 25

Which may be suggestive of Down syndrome?

A) Drusen bodies
B) Papilledema
C) Narrow palpebral fissures
D) Prominent epicanthal folds

Question 26

Which are the signs and symptoms of infant retinoblastoma? (Select all that apply.)

A) White reflex
B) Red reflex
C) Corneal light reflex
D) Absence of a blink reflex
E) Autosomal dominant trait
F) Drainage from the affected eye
G) Visual acuity of 20/500

Question 27

You are attempting to examine the eyes of a newborn. To facilitate eye opening, you would first:

A) dim the room lights.
B) elicit pain.
C) place him in the supine position.
D) shine the penlight in his or her eyes.

Question 28

Dot hemorrhages, or microaneurysms, in the retina and the presence of hard and soft exudates are most commonly seen in those with:

A) Down syndrome.
B) diabetic retinopathy.
C) systemic lupus.
D) glaucoma.