Deck 11: Gene Expression: From Transcription to Translation

Question 1

Once bound to the promoter,RNA polymerase ________.

A)breaks the DNA chain in the start site region
B)melts the two DNA strands in the start site region
C)degrades the two DNA strands in the start site region
D)melts the two DNA strands in the termination site region
E)chemically alters the DNA template

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Beadle and Tatum's research suggested that __________.

A)a gene carries the information to build lipids
B)a gene carries the information to build carbohydrates
C)a gene carries the information for the construction of a particular enzyme
D)a gene is made of RNA
E)a gene is made of DNA

Answer 2

C

Question 3

The enzyme in eukaryotes that is responsible for the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template is called _______.

A)DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
B)DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
C)RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
D)RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
E)ribonuclease

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Alcaptonuria is a genetic disease that is characterized by _________.

A)urine turning dark upon exposure to the air
B)mental retardation
C)paralysis
D)urine smelling and tasting like maple syrup
E)high fevers

Question 5

The site on DNA to which RNA polymerases bind before initiating transcription is called the ______.

A)terminator
B)operator
C)promoter
D)enhancer
E)silencer

Question 6

The nucleotide at which transcription is initiated is called _____.

A)0
B)+1
C)-1
D)+2
E)-2

Question 7

What was the new name of Beadle and Tatum's hypothesis after it was discovered that some enzymes were composed of more than one polypeptide chain?

A)the One Gene - One Enzyme hypothesis
B)the One Gene - One Polypeptide hypothesis
C)the One Polypeptide - One Enzyme hypothesis
D)the One Polypeptide - One Gene hypothesis
E)the One Gene - Two Gene hypothesis

Question 8

Who was the first to report that certain rare inherited diseases were caused by the absence of specific enzymes?

A)Charles Darwin
B)Archibald Garrod
C)George Beadle
D)Vernon Ingram
E)James Watson

Question 9

A sense RNA for a particular targeted protein is ___________.

A)an RNA having a sequence complementary to the mRNA of the targeted protein
B)an RNA having the sequence of the mRNA that encoded the protein being targeted
C)a small RNA with a clover shape
D)an RNA with catalytic activity
E)an RNA generally found in ribosomes that forges the peptide bond

Question 10

What did Archibald Garrod call diseases like alcaptonuria?

A)deadly diseases
B)inborn errors of transcription
C)homogentisms
D)errors
E)inborn errors of metabolism

Question 11

What provides the energy that drives the polymerization of RNA from a DNA template?

A)nitrogenous bases
B)deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs)
C)ribonucleoside triphosphates (NTPs)
D)ribose sugars
E)ribosomes

Question 12

An alcaptonuric lacks the enzyme that oxidizes what metabolite?

A)phenylalanine
B)tyrosine
C)homogentisic acid
D)asparagine
E)pantothenic acid

Question 13

The reverse reaction of nucleic acid synthesis almost never happens.What prevents it?

A)The enzyme does not work in reverse.
B)Polynucleotides are too stable to depolymerize.
C)H bonds holding the strands together are too strong.
D)Nucleic acid synthesis is coupled to the highly exergonic pyrophosphate hydrolysis.
E)There is a large uptake of free energy.

Question 14

Sequences of DNA that are similar,seemingly conserved and seen in association with genes in roughly the same location from gene to gene in bacteria are called ________.They are generally the most common version of such a conserved DNA sequence,but some variation in the sequence can occur from one gene to another.

A)familiar sequences
B)conserved sequences
C)consensus sequences
D)avatars
E)consensons

Question 15

The _______ is located about 10 bases upstream from the initiation site.It has the consensus sequence ______ and is responsible for identifying the precise nucleotide at which ________ begins.

A)Pribnow box,TATAAT,transcription
B)Pribnow box,TTGACA,transcription
C)Pribnow box,TATAAT,translation
D)Portnoy box,TATAAT,transcription
E)Portnoy box,TATAAT,translation

Question 16

What did Beadle and Tatum use to generate mutations in their experimental organism?

A)mustard gas
B)irradiation with ultraviolet light
C)fluorescent dyes
D)ethidium bromide
E)Coomassie blue

Question 17

Why has the One Gene - One Polypeptide hypothesis had to be modified?

A)It was totally wrong.
B)Genes can be spliced differently to generate a variety of related polypeptides.
C)Enzymes sometimes consist of more than one polypeptide,each of which is coded for by its own gene.
D)Enzymes actually code for genes.
E)Polypeptides code for genes.

Question 18

Once the $\sigma$ factor leaves the core enzyme,what happens?

A)Transcription begins.
B)The core enzyme continues synthesis.
C)The core enzyme discontinues synthesis.
D)Transcription terminates.
E)The core enzyme backs up 25 nucleotides.

Question 19

In what direction is mRNA produced?

A)3' to 5' direction
B)5' to 3' direction
C)N-terminal to C-terminal direction
D)C-terminal to N-terminal direction
E)N-terminal to 3' direction

Question 20

While RNA polymerase is a processive enzyme that remains attached to the DNA over long stretches of template,it must be associated _______ enough so that it can move from nucleotide to nucleotide along the template.

A)tightly
B)loosely
C)angularly
D)rapidly
E)linearly

Question 21

Heterogeneous nuclear RNAs are _________.

A)tRNA precursors
B)mRNA precursors
C)rRNA precursors
D)snoRNA precursors
E)mature snRNAs

Question 22

How would you describe the arrangement of the 5S rRNA genes?

A)tandem array with spacers
B)continuous genes
C)tandem array without spacers
D)4 introns between each protein
E)quartile array with duplex spacers

Question 23

A larger S value for an RNA specifically indicates that the RNA __________.

A)migrates more rapidly through a field of force during centrifugation
B)migrates less rapidly through a field of force during centrifugation
C)migrates more rapidly through a field of force during gel filtration
D)migrates more rapidly through a field of force during SDS polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
E)migrates less rapidly through a field of force during SDS polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis

Question 24

The chromosome regions containing rDNA are located in.

A)terminators
B)nucleoli
C)nucleosomes
D)ribostores
E)telomeres

Question 25

In mammalian cells,radiolabeled methyl groups appear first in what size RNA molecule that is a precursor to rRNA?

A)45S RNA
B)28S RNA
C)18S RNA
D)5)8S RNA
E)65S RNA

Question 26

What is the name of the RNA-degrading machine that consists of nearly a dozen different exonucleases and is thought to execute some of the enzymatic cleavages that occur during pre-rRNA processing?

A)endosome
B)exosome
C)nucleosome
D)heliosome
E)degradosome

Question 27

What percentage of cellular RNA is rRNA?

A)less than 20%
B)more than 90%
C)more than 80%
D)exactly 75%
E)36.5%

Question 28

The corresponding segment of DNA from which the primary transcript is transcribed is called a _____.

A)sedimentation unit
B)transcription unit
C)translation unit
D)coding unit
E)transcriptosome

Question 29

You are looking at an electron micrograph of several transcriptional units for rRNA.How can you tell where the transcription initiation site is?

A)It is near the longest nascent transcripts.
B)It is near the middle of the Christmas tree.
C)It is near the shortest nascent transcripts.
D)It is always 40 µm from the center of the Christmas tree.
E)It is near the centromere.

Question 30

Where are the snoRNAs encoded?

A)within their own genes
B)within the exons of other genes
C)within the telomeres
D)within the intervening sequences of other genes
E)within the intervening sequences of their own genes

Question 31

Most of the cellular RNA is in what form?

A)hnRNAs
B)snoRNAs
C)mRNAs
D)rRNAs
E)hmRNAs

Question 32

Evidence of the importance of the conversion of uridine to pseudouridine comes from a rare,fatal disease in which the enzyme that catalyzes the conversion is mutated.Symptoms of the disease are skin abnormalities,bone marrow failure and elevated susceptibility to cancer.The name of the disease is _________.

A)dysplasia
B)keratinosis
C)dyskeratosis
D)lupus erythematosus
E)dyspareunia

Question 33

The promoter for tRNA genes (tDNA)is located ________.

A)at the gene's 3' end
B)within the coding section of the gene rather than in the 5' flank
C)at the 5' end of the gene
D)far downstream of the gene
E)far upstream of the gene

Question 34

The naked regions seen on the DNA fiber between transcriptional units are called ________.

A)spacelies
B)nontranscribed spacers
C)nontranslated spacers
D)untranslated spacers
E)naked genes

Question 35

What kind of DNA is the DNA that codes for rRNA?

A)highly repetitive DNA
B)moderately repetitive DNA
C)unique sequence DNA
D)single copy DNA
E)single-stranded DNA

Question 36

You incubate eukaryotic cells for 30 minutes in 3H-uridine and then immediately kill the cells and extract the RNA.Where does the radiolabel appear after this experiment?

A)in larger RNAs in the cytoplasm
B)in smaller RNAs in the mitochondria
C)in smaller RNAs in the cytoplasm
D)in larger RNAs in the mitochondria
E)in moderately sized RNAs in the Golgi complex

Question 37

A cluster of genes coding for tRNAs is often referred to as ______.

A)tDNA
B)transferase
C)rDNA
D)t clusters
E)tDNase

Question 38

The snoRNA genes are found in the ______ of genes coding for polypeptides involved in _______.

A)exons,structural genes
B)introns,ribosome assembly and function
C)exons,ribosome assembly and function
D)introns,structural genes
E)introns,RNA synthesis

Question 39

What features set pre-rRNAs apart from other RNA transcripts?

A)pseudouridine residues and thymidine residues
B)thymidine residues and methylated nucleotides
C)pseudouridine residues and methylated nucleotides
D)pseudouridines and pseudocytosines
E)methylated nucleotides and pseudocytosines

Question 40

Modifications to the nucleotides of pre-rRNAs are made _________?

A)posttranslationally
B)pretranscriptionally
C)posttranscriptionally
D)postmitotically
E)premitotically

Question 41

RNAi or dsRNA-mediated RNA interference is an example of a broader phenomenon that occurs widely in eukaryotes called __________.

A)RNA activation
B)RNA ascension
C)RNA silencing
D)RNA sussuration
E)RNA quieting

Question 42

What appears to be the role of siRNA in destroying the target mRNA upon which it and its associated proteins act?

A)It cleaves the target mRNA.
B)It stabilizes the target mRNA.
C)It destabilizes the target mRNA's binding to its associated proteins.
D)It guides the RISC that cleaves the target mRNA to that target mRNA due to its complementarity to that molecule.
E)It activates the RISC complex ribonuclease.

Question 43

RNA interference can be used to _____ the production of a particular enzyme so that the effect of the enzyme _______ on the organism's _________ can be determined.

A)stop,deficiency,phenotype
B)enhance,deficiency,phenotype
C)stop,deficiency,genotype
D)enhance,overexpression,phenotype
E)stop,overexpression,genotype

Question 44

Which of the following is not a normal property of eukaryotic mRNAs?

A)They contain a continuous nucleotide sequence encoding a specific polypeptide.
B)They are found in the cytoplasm and inside the Golgi complex.
C)They are attached to ribosomes when they are translated.
D)Most have a significant noncoding segment that does not direct assembly of amino acids.
E)Eukaryotic mRNAs have special modifications at their 5' and 3' termini.

Question 45

What is responsible for synthesizing hnRNAs?

A)RNA polymerase I
B)RNA polymerase II
C)RNA polymerase III
D)reverse transcriptase
E)general transcription factors

Question 46

Which strand of the double-stranded siRNA is cut in two and then dissociates from the pre-RISC?

A)the active strand
B)the passenger strand
C)the siRNA strand
D)the pedestrian strand
E)the silencer strand

Question 47

Which of the phenomena below is responsible for the ability of one gene to code for more than one polypeptide?

A)transcription
B)alternative splicing
C)transposition
D)hybridization
E)exon shuffling

Question 48

Where is the RNA polymerase II phosphorylated during its activation?

A)on the N-terminal end of the largest RNA polymerase II subunit
B)on the central 20 amino acids of the largest RNA polymerase II subunit
C)on the 3' end of the largest RNA polymerase II subunit
D)on the 5' end of the largest RNA polymerase II subunit
E)in the carboxyl-terminal domain (CTD)of the largest RNA polymerase II subunit

Question 49

The intermediate stage that the group II introns pass through while undergoing self-splicing is called the _____.

A)langolier
B)lanyard
C)lariat
D)lasso
E)elsesser

Question 50

Why are general transcription factors (GTFs)referred to as "general?"

A)The same transcription factors are required for the accurate initiation of transcription of a diverse array of genes in a wide variety of different organisms.
B)The same transcription factors are required for the accurate initiation of translation of a diverse array of genes in a wide variety of different organisms.
C)The same transcription factors are required for the accurate termination of transcription of a diverse array of genes in a wide variety of different organisms.
D)The same transcription factors are required for the accurate termination of translation of a diverse array of genes in a wide variety of different organisms.
E)They are called "general" because they outrank "major."

Question 51

The macromolecular complex that associates with each intron and splices it is called a(n)_____.

A)splicer
B)acrosome
C)spliceosome
D)splicing body
E)splice engine

Question 52

RNA polymerase II promoters are located on the ____ side of each transcription unit.

A)3'
B)5'
C)N-terminal
D)C-terminal
E)internal

Question 53

Why does it make sense that cells would be able to recognize dsRNAs as undesirable using a mechanism such as RNAi?

A)dsRNAs are not produced by the cell's normal genetic activities.
B)dsRNAs are produced by the cell's normal genetic activities.
C)dsRNAs adversely affect mitochondria.
D)dsRNAs could cause degradation of nuclear DNA.
E)dsRNAs have a very abnormal interaction with proteins.

Question 54

What is the name of the enzyme that cleaves dsRNA into the small,double-stranded fragments known as small-interfering RNAs (siRNAs)?

A)riboendonuclease
B)Dicer ribonuclease
C)deoxyribonuclease
D)RNA helicase
E)reverse transcriptase

Question 55

What molecule is TFIIH known to phosphorylate?

A)a G protein
B)RNA polymerase II
C)RNA polymerase IV
D)peptidyltransferase
E)DNA helicase

Question 56

How would you describe the half-lives of rRNAs and tRNAs?

A)days or weeks long
B)minutes long
C)seconds long
D)hours long
E)years long

Question 57

As life was first evolving,what molecule is thought to have performed double duty as the genetic material and performing catalysis of chemical reactions?

A)RNA
B)proteins
C)polypeptides
D)DNA
E)both proteins and polypeptides

Question 58

How is the RISC directed to the target mRNA that it is destined to destroy?

A)The ribonuclease slicer directs the RISC to the cleavage site.
B)The single-stranded siRNA is complementary to the target mRNA and directs the RISC to it.
C)The passenger strand acts like a guide to direct the RISC to the target.
D)The siRNA is complementary to the slicer ribonuclease.
E)The siRNA is magnetically attracted to the target mRNA.

Question 59

Which of the following binds to the TATA box?

A)CTD
B)tRNA
C)corticosteroid binding protein
D)TBP
E)PBT

Question 60

The 3' end of most eukaryotic mRNAs contains a ______,while the 5' end has a _________.

A)poly(A)tail,methylated guanosine cap
B)poly(U)tail,methylated guanosine cap
C)methylated guanosine cap,poly(A)tail
D)poly(A)tail,sulfonated guanosine cap
E)methylated guanosine cap,poly(U)tail

Question 61

Where are the unusual bases of tRNAs predominantly concentrated?

A)in the stems
B)in the loops
C)at the 3' end
D)at the 5' end
E)in double-stranded regions

Question 62

A pri-mRNA is cleaved within the nucleus by an enzyme called _______ into a shorter,double-stranded,hairpin-shaped precursor called a ________.

A)Drosha,pre-miRNA
B)Drosha,pri-miRNA
C)Dicer,pre-miRNA
D)Dicer,pri-miRNA
E)Slicer,pre-miRNA

Question 63

What are the differences between piRNAs on the one hand and si/miRNAs on the other hand?

A)piRNAs are longer than si/miRNAs.
B)The majority of mammalian piRNAs can be mapped to a small number of huge genomic loci,unlike si/mi RNAs.
C)The formation of piRNAs does not involve the formation of dsRNA precursors,unlike si/mi RNAs.
D)Formation of piRNAs does not involve cleavage by Dicer ribonuclease,but instead it depends on the endonuclease activity of the PIWI protein acting on a long,single stranded primary transcript.
E)All of these are correct.

Question 64

Where is the pre-miRNA converted to miRNA by Dicer?

A)the nucleus
B)the cytoplasm
C)the mitochondria
D)the plasma membrane
E)the lysosome

Question 65

With what protein does the double-stranded miRNA become associated? The RNA duplex then is disassembled and one of the single strands is incorporated into a RISC complex.

A)slicer
B)Mincer
C)an Argonaute protein
D)riscin
E)ribonuclease

Question 66

If there were one tRNA for every codon that codes for an amino acid,how many different tRNAs should there be?

A)20
B)3
C)64
D)61
E)21

Question 67

Which enzyme,also responsible for siRNA formation,carves miRNAs from their double-stranded,fold-back RNA precursor (pre-miRNA)?

A)RNA polymerase
B)reverse transcriptase
C)Dicer ribonuclease
D)DNA polymerase
E)Mincer ribonuclease

Question 68

Before the genetic code was actually known,Francis Crick predicted that it was degenerate.What piece of evidence led him to make this prediction?

A)All proteins looked the same.
B)All proteins were made of amino acids.
C)He noted that the base composition of the DNAs of various bacteria varied greatly while the amino acid composition of their proteins varied very little overall.
D)He noted that the base composition of the DNAs of various bacteria varied little while the amino acid composition of their proteins varied greatly overall.
E)The code was non-overlapping.

Question 69

Which of the following is not a potential application of the CRISPR-cas9 system?

A)DNA insertions
B)DNA deletions
C)chromosome rearrangements
D)RNA interference
E)genome editing

Question 70

The CRISPR-cas9 system uses ___ as a template to locate and cleave ____ targets.

A)siRNA,DNA
B)siRNA,RNA
C)dsDNA,RNA
D)sgRNA,RNA
E)sgRNA,DNA

Question 71

A small RNA encoded by the lin-4 gene was found in the nematode C.elegans.It was nearly complementary to segments in ________.These small RNAs were able to bind to the complementary mRNA blocking its translation,which apparently triggers a transition to the next developmental stage.

A)the 3' untranslated region of specific mRNAs produced by the organism
B)the 5' untranslated region of specific mRNAs produced by the organism
C)the promoter of specific genes
D)the poly(A)tail of specific mRNAs
E)the 5'-methylguanosine cap of the mRNA

Question 72

What evidence shows that the genetic code is not overlapping?

A)Mutant proteins whose genes experience a change in only one nucleotide,have a corresponding change in 3 consecutive amino acids.
B)Mutant proteins whose genes experience a change in only one nucleotide,have a corresponding change in only 1 amino acid.
C)Mutant proteins are greatly increased in length relative to the gene coding for them.
D)Mutant proteins are greatly decreased in length relative to the gene coding for them.
E)Mutant proteins whose genes experience a change in only one nucleotide,have a corresponding change in 6 consecutive amino acids.

Question 73

What is the presumed function of the siRNAs produced by mammalian oocytes?

A)They aid in fertilization.
B)They may be the mechanism of defense against the movement of transposable elements in the female germ cell line.
C)They may be the mechanism of defense against the movement of chromosomes in the female germ cell line.
D)They play a role in the regulation of meiosis.
E)They play a role in the regulation of oogenesis.

Question 74

Mammalian oocytes have recently been shown to produce siRNAs.What are they called?

A)exo-siRNAs
B)endo-siRNAs
C)endoRNAs
D)mamma-siRNAs
E)oo-siRNAs

Question 75

The genetic code has 64 codons,while there are only 20 amino acids.Thus,some amino acids are coded for by more than one codon.As a result,the genetic code is said to be ________.

A)regenerate
B)degenerate
C)overlapping
D)nonoverlapping
E)nonspecific

Question 76

What is meant by referring to the genetic code as universal?

A)The genetic code is the same everywhere in the Universe.
B)All of the organisms on Earth use the same genetic code with only minor variations.
C)The genetic code is found in all organisms but varies extensively.
D)The genetic code is minimal.
E)The genetic code is multiphasic.

Question 77

What is the maximum number of tRNAs that a cell would be likely to have?

A)20
B)3
C)64
D)61
E)21

Question 78

What is the supposed function of the loops in tRNAs?

A)They bind to amino acids.
B)They bind to other tRNAs.
C)They bind to mRNAs.
D)They serve as potential recognition sites for various proteins.
E)They increase the buoyant density of tRNAs.

Question 79

You travel to another planet and discover that its genetic system is based on DNA,but it has 6 bases instead of 4 as happens on Earth.The proteins on the planet have 30 amino acids.What would be the likely number of letters in each codon on this planet?

A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)6

Question 80

Another name for protein synthesis is _________.

A)transcription
B)transition
C)transubstantiation
D)translation
E)transition state