Deck 27: Reproduction and Embryonic Development

Question 1

The body cells of a turkey have 80 chromosomes each. How many chromosomes would be found in a male turkey's sperm cells?

A) 160
B) 80
C) 40
D) 20

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Which hormone stimulates growth of an ovarian follicle?

A) LH
B) FSH
C) estrogen
D) progesterone

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Which statement regarding spermatogenesis and oogenesis is true?

A) Meiosis in spermatogenesis produces two cells from one primary spermatocyte.
B) Meiosis in oogenesis produces one mature egg from one primary oocyte.
C) Spermatogenesis begins at birth.

Answer 3

B

Question 4

The embryo normally implants in the

A) oviduct.
B) labia minora.
C) ovary.
D) endometrium.

Question 5

Menstruation

A) is triggered by an LH surge.
B) is triggered by HCG.
C) is triggered by an increase in the levels of estrogen and progesterone.
D) coincides with the beginning of the pre-ovulatory phase of the ovarian cycle.

Question 6

Reproductive systems with external fertilization are most common in

A) terrestrial animals.
B) populations with many more males than females.
C) animals that are widely dispersed.
D) aquatic animals.

Question 7

Coral reefs are made up of genetically alike coral polyps. New polyps develop as offshoots from the parental polyp. What type of reproduction do coral polyps use?

A) budding
B) fission
C) fragmentation
D) sexual reproduction

Question 8

After being produced in the testes, sperm mature further in a structure called the

A) vas deferens.
B) epididymis.
C) prostate.
D) seminal vesicle.

Question 9

Hermaphrodites are animals that

A) possess both male and female reproductive systems.
B) have the gonads of one sex but the external appearance of the other.
C) develop from unfertilized eggs.
D) must fertilize themselves.

Question 10

Which is not a potential advantage of asexual reproduction?

A) It allows animals that do not move around to produce offspring without finding mates.
B) It saves the time and energy required to produce gametes.
C) It produces genetically diverse populations.
D) It allows animals that are genetically well suited to a particular environment to quickly expand their populations.

Question 11

Fertilization in the female reproductive tract typically occurs in the

A) ovary.
B) oviduct.
C) uterus.

Question 12

The human egg is swept through the oviduct toward the uterus by

A) the beating of the egg's cilia.
B) rhythmic contractions of the oviduct.
C) rhythmic contractions of the uterus.
D) the beating of cilia in the oviduct.

Question 13

Fission is an asexual process

A) that allows regeneration of lost body parts.
B) that occurs in individuals that live in isolated areas.
C) in which a parent separates into two individuals of approximately equal size.
D) in which a parent fragments into several pieces.

Question 14

A decrease in ________ is followed by the gradual degradation of the corpus luteum.

A) LH
B) FSH
C) estrogen
D) progesterone

Question 15

Which statement regarding sexual reproduction is true?

A) Sexual reproduction creates an individual that is a genetic copy of one parent.
B) Sexual reproduction generates greater genetic variation than asexual reproduction.
C) Sexual reproduction allows animals to expand their populations faster than asexual reproduction.
D) Populations of organisms that reproduce through sexual reproduction generally have more difficulty adapting to changing environments.

Question 16

Which statement about the reproductive system of human females is true?

A) Eggs develop within the uterus.
B) The corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which helps maintain the uterine lining during pregnancy.
C) After 9 months of development, an embryo is called a fetus.
D) The cervix is an important structure of sexual arousal.

Question 17

An advantage of human testes being positioned in an external sac rather than in the abdominal cavity is that the

A) distance that semen must travel during ejaculation is shortened.
B) distance that sperm must swim during insemination is shortened.
C) testes can be kept cooler than the body's interior.
D) testes can enlarge during sexual maturation.

Question 18

Which agent can cause an infection that can ultimately develop into pelvic inflammatory disease in women?

A) herpes simplex virus type 2
B) papilloma virus
C) Candida
D) Chlamydia

Question 19

Which structure produces a thick fluid containing fructose, which is used for energy by sperm?

A) prostate gland
B) bulbourethral gland
C) seminal vesicles
D) epididymis

Question 20

Which statement comparing spermatogenesis and oogenesis is true?

A) During oogenesis, four cells are produced with each sharing equally the cytoplasm from the parent cell.
B) Men, but not women, can produce gametes throughout their adult lives.
C) Spermatogenesis and oogenesis rely upon mitosis to produce gametes.
D) Spermatogenesis, but not oogenesis, is an example of gametogenesis.

Question 21

Two important contributions that cleavage makes to development are to

A) establish the basic tissues of the body and define the future nervous system.
B) create a multicellular embryo and partition the embryo into developmental regions.
C) create a multicellular embryo and establish the basic tissues of the body.
D) establish the basic body plan and determine the location of the mouth and anus.

Question 22

Which of the following STIs is caused by a virus that can also cause cancer?

A) genital warts
B) gonorrhea
C) candidiasis

Question 23

At the end of gastrulation, the ectoderm makes up the

A) lining of the embryonic digestive tract.
B) outer layer of the gastrula.
C) inner layer of the gastrula.

Question 24

Research indicates that ________ respond(s) to ________ signals that inform a cell about its position relative to other cells in the embryo.

A) nervous tissue; hormonal
B) master control genes; chemical
C) organs; electrical
D) organelles; chemical

Question 25

What occurs during gastrulation?

A) A solid embryo is changed into a hollow morula.
B) A solid blastula is changed into a hollow embryo that has four tissue layers.
C) A hollow blastula is changed into a hollow embryo that has three tissue layers.
D) A neural tube is created by invagination of the ectoderm.

Question 26

Which structure generates the ATP that is required for movement of the sperm's tail?

A) a mitochondrion in the neck and middle piece
B) mitochondria in the sperm tail
C) the sperm plasma membrane
D) the acrosome

Question 27

Which process occurs during cellular migration and development into specialized tissue?

A) Cells are transferred to the appropriate region of the embryo via the bloodstream.
B) Cells fuse to produce multinucleated giant cells.
C) Similar cells attach themselves to each other by secreting glycoproteins.
D) Most cells of the developing tissue undergo the process of apoptosis.

Question 28

Cells migrate from one place to another during gastrulation using

A) cilia.
B) cellular protrusions.
C) flagella.

Question 29

Which option correctly lists the sequence in which most animals develop?

A) zygote, cleavage, blastula, gastrula, organ formation
B) cleavage, zygote, gastrula, blastula, organ formation
C) zygote, cleavage, gastrula, blastula, organ formation
D) zygote, cleavage, organ formation, blastula, gastrula

Question 30

The brain and spinal cord are formed from the

A) notochord, which is formed from mesoderm.
B) notochord, which is formed from endoderm.
C) neural tube, which is formed from mesoderm.
D) neural tube, which is formed from ectoderm.

Question 31

The function of a sperm cell's acrosome is to

A) carry the sperm's nucleus.
B) fuse with the jelly coat of the egg cell.
C) provide enzymes that help the sperm penetrate the egg.
D) provide the fuel that powers the sperm.

Question 32

Sterilization, in which sperm are surgically prevented from reaching the egg, is accomplished by

A) the rhythm method.
B) tubal ligation or vasectomy.
C) spermicide.
D) mifepristone (RU486).

Question 33

Which process is most similar to the process of cleavage?

A) slicing up a pie into eight pieces
B) stringing beads onto a string
C) inflating a balloon
D) melting a stick of butter in a hot pan

Question 34

When a chemical signal from a group of embryonic cells causes a different, nearby group of cells to embark on a particular developmental course (say, differentiating into a leg), the interaction between the two groups of cells is called

A) induction.
B) coordinated differentiation.
C) implantation.

Question 35

Which event occurs first during embryonic development?

A) gastrulation
B) neurulation
C) cleavage
D) organ formation

Question 36

Which structure serves as an impenetrable barrier that prevents more than one sperm from fertilizing an egg?

A) the acrosome
B) the jelly coat of the egg
C) the sperm's plasma membrane
D) the vitelline layer

Question 37

Which is a direct result of cleavage?

A) formation of the nervous system
B) formation of the notochord
C) division of cells
D) segmentation

Question 38

Which structure develops from mesodermal tissue?

A) muscles
B) lining of the digestive tract
C) skin
D) nervous system

Question 39

Apoptosis can be described as

A) programmed cell death.
B) gastrulation.
C) phagocytosis.
D) neural tube formation.

Question 40

Which statement regarding birth control is true?

A) The most widely used birth control pills contain a combination of FSH and LH.
B) Natural family planning is generally reliable.
C) Morning-after pills taken within 3 days of unprotected intercourse prevent fertilization or implantation about 75% of the time.
D) Birth control pills work primarily by preventing fertilization and implantation.

Question 41

Which process occurs during labor?

A) positive feedback involving oxytocin and prostaglandins
B) negative feedback involving oxytocin and prostaglandins
C) positive feedback involving estrogen and human chorionic gonadotropin
D) negative feedback involving estrogen and human chorionic gonadotropin

Question 42

What would happen if the chorion failed to secrete human chorionic gonadotropin?

A) The maternal elements of the placenta would fail to develop.
B) The fetal elements of the placenta would fail to develop.
C) Neural tube formation would not occur, and the embryo would have no central nervous system.
D) The embryo would be spontaneously aborted.

Question 43

A vasectomy is a form of male sterilization in which each vas deferens is cut, but most of the male's reproductive physiology remains intact. Which of the following will not continue to occur in a male who has had a vasectomy?

A) Sperm will be produced in the seminiferous tubules.
B) Seminal fluid will be ejaculated from the penis during orgasm.
C) Glandular secretions will be ejaculated from the penis during orgasm.
D) Sperm will be ejaculated from the penis during orgasm.

Question 44

The yolk sac of humans

A) stores nutrients to support the developing embryo.
B) is evidence of humans' relationships with egg-laying vertebrates.
C) secretes HCG.
D) absorbs nutrients from, and releases waste to, the mother's blood.

Question 45

Suppose that during the embryonic development of a hand, homeotic gene expression is altered such that the dorsal-ventral axis is switched. What is the most likely outcome of this scenario?

A) The palm and back of the hand will be switched.
B) The pinky and thumb would be switched.
C) The shoulder and hand would be switched.
D) The foot and hand would be switched.

Question 46

Which of the following processes dominates the third trimester of human development?

A) formation of external features such as arms and legs
B) formation of hair and fingernails
C) rapid growth
D) organ formation

Question 47

Which outcome would be the most likely if androgen receptors on cells in the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary suddenly could not bind androgen?

A) Sperm production would increase.
B) Sperm production would decrease.
C) FSH production would decrease.
D) HCG production would increase.

Question 48

Suppose that diploid cells of the seminiferous tubules encounter errors during the cell cycle and mitosis. This results in the primary spermatocytes having a 4n number of chromosomes. Assuming that meiosis proceeds normally, which of the following would be true?

A) Sperm cells would have an n number of chromosomes.
B) Sperm cells would have a 2n number of chromosomes.
C) Secondary spermatocytes would have a 4n number of chromosomes.
D) Secondary spermatocytes would have an n number of chromosomes.

Question 49

Which of the following statements regarding infertility and fertilization procedures is true?

A) Embryos fertilized through assisted reproductive technologies cannot be frozen for later use, as they degrade rapidly.
B) In GIFT, sperm are injected into an embryo in vitro, and the embryo is placed into the oviducts.
C) In IVF, fertilization occurs in a dish. The embryo is allowed to develop for several days, and then the embryo is placed into the uterus.
D) Cells cannot be removed from the blastocyst without harm to the embryo.

Question 50

When does the human blastocyst implant in the wall of the uterus?

A) within a few hours of fertilization
B) about a day after conception
C) about a week after conception
D) only after all four extraembryonic membranes become established

Question 51

Which structure is part of the placenta and completely surrounds the embryo?

A) chorion
B) amnion
C) yolk sac
D) allantois

Question 52

Your friend tells you that as long as you can track the exact day that a woman ovulates, and as long as a woman does not have sexual intercourse on this day, then she will not get pregnant even if no form of contraception is used. Is your friend correct? Why or why not?

A) Yes. Sperm can only fertilize an egg on the day that ovulation occurs, so as long as sexual intercourse does not occur on this day, the woman will not become pregnant.
B) Yes. High levels of FSH and LH are needed for fertilization to occur, and the levels of FSH and LH do not rise until the exact day that ovulation occurs.
C) No. Even after ovulation occurs, a woman's egg remains in the uterus for at least a week and is able to be fertilized by sperm during this time period.
D) No. Sperm can survive in the female reproductive tract, so having sexual intercourse a few days before ovulation can result in pregnancy.

Question 53

The discovery of ________ explains embryonic pattern formation in a wide variety of organisms.

A) the three-dimensional forms of animals
B) gastrulation
C) homeotic genes
D) programmed cell death

Question 54

At which gestational age does a developing human fetus first look obviously human and not like other vertebrate embryos?

A) 2 weeks
B) 4 weeks
C) 9 weeks
D) 4 months

Question 55

Home pregnancy test kits work by detecting the presence of a hormone in a woman's urine. Recently developed test kits include an indicator of how long the woman has been pregnant (1-2, 2-3, or 3+ weeks). The presence of ________ would indicate that a woman is pregnant, and ________ levels of this hormone would indicate that she is farther along in her pregnancy.

A) HCG; low
B) HCG; high
C) FSH; low
D) FSH; high

Question 56

The acrosome of sperm cells contains an enzyme called hyaluronidase. Which of the following procedures would benefit from the addition of hyaluronidase?

A) ligating two strands of DNA together
B) helping a drug to pass through a cell membrane
C) assisting with mitotic division of skin cells
D) increasing levels of FSH released from the hypothalamus

Question 57

The human embryo's first blood cells arise in the

A) developing liver.
B) developing bone marrow.
C) yolk sac.
D) allantois.

Question 58

Contractions in uterine smooth muscle during labor are initiated by

A) LH.
B) estrogen.
C) oxytocin.
D) prolactin.

Question 59

Asthenozoospermia is a medical condition that is characterized by reduced sperm motility. What structure of the sperm is likely affected in a man who has asthenozoospermia?

A) acrosome
B) head
C) middle piece
D) flagellum

Question 60

Another term for gestation is

A) conception.
B) fertilization.
C) development.
D) pregnancy.

Question 61

Use the figure below to answer the questions that follow.

In which part of the human female reproductive system would sterilization be performed?

A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
D) part D

Question 62

Meconium is the clinical term used for the earliest stool (fecal matter) of a newborn human infant, which is usually very sticky (like tar), almost completely odorless, and dark olive green in color. Meconium takes this form due to materials that the fetus orally ingests while in the uterus. Which of the following materials would the fetus likely ingest during development?

A) amniotic fluid
B) placental blood
C) digestive products from the mother
D) blood from the mother

Question 63

After reading the paragraph below, answer the questions that follow.
Brittany's family includes several individuals with a genetic disorder that affects primarily males. Her husband Tony has no history of the disease. They have decided that their best chance to have a healthy family is to have only daughters. Through a new type of assisted reproductive technology, it is possible to separate sperm that will produce sons from those that will produce daughters. Brittany's eggs will be fertilized by in vitro fertilization (IVF) with sperm that can produce only daughters. The developing female embryo can be implanted into her uterus to complete development normally.
The daughter-producing sperm used to fertilize Brittany's eggs should be

A) diploid primary spermatocytes.
B) haploid secondary spermatocytes.
C) haploid sperm cells.
D) diploid sperm cells.

Question 64

Use the figure below to answer the questions that follow.

What part in the figure below will develop into the placenta?

A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
D) part D

Question 65

Use the figure below to answer the questions that follow.

Which part would be cut when a sterilization procedure (vasectomy) is performed?

A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
D) part D
E) part E

Question 66

A pregnant woman goes to her obstetrician for her first ultrasound. After the exam is over, the doctor remarks, "It looks like the ribs are still developing, and I might even have seen some tiny fingers and toes." How many weeks pregnant is this woman?

A) less than 5 weeks
B) between 5 and 8 weeks
C) between 8 and 14 weeks
D) more than 14 weeks

Question 67

Use the figure below to answer the questions that follow.

Which structure may swell and cause increased frequency of urination due to common medical problems in older men?

A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
D) part D

Question 68

If a patient was not having menstrual periods, medical intervention might bring about the shedding of the endometrium by

A) blocking release of FSH.
B) blocking release of LH.
C) blocking release of HCG.
D) blocking release of estrogen and progesterone.

Question 69

The text indicates that the digestive tract in vertebrates is ventral to (beneath) the backbone. Yet our digestive tract is in front of our backbone, which is still considered ventral. Why is this an appropriate statement?

A) Terms like ventral that describe spatial relationships between structures are based on a common body plan of a creature who walks on four legs and in that case the digestive track would be ventral to the backbone.
B) Humans have entirely different organ arrangements than any other vertebrates so words like ventral take on entirely different meanings.
C) It is wrong to say that our digestive track is ventral to the backbone.

Question 70

Use the figure below to answer the questions that follow.

In which part of the human female reproductive system does implantation normally take place?

A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
D) part D

Question 71

If a woman has reached or passed her due date (the date that a woman is expected to give birth), her obstetrician may use hormones to help initiate labor. Which of the following hormones would assist the most in the initiation of labor?

A) HCG
B) FSH
C) progesterone
D) oxytocin

Question 72

Use the figure below to answer the questions that follow.

In which part of the human female reproductive system would a spermicide be placed?

A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
D) part D

Question 73

In this graph of estrogen and progesterone in the female reproductive cycle, the center dotted line represents day 14. Which of these is true?

A) The peak 1 shows the surge that causes breakdown of the uterine lining.
B) The peak 2 is brought about in response to high levels of FSH.
C) The peak 2 causes complete buildup of the uterine lining (endometrium).
D) The two hormonal peaks ensure that fertilization will not occur.

Question 74

Use the figure below to answer the questions that follow.

Which part of this figure depicting a gastrula is the mesoderm?

A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
D) part D

Question 75

Use the figure below to answer the questions that follow.

Which part of this figure depicting the human male reproductive system is the epididymis?

A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
D) part D
E) part E

Question 76

Use the figure below to answer the questions that follow.

In which part of the human female reproductive system does fertilization normally take place?

A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
D) part D

Question 77

Use the figure below to answer the questions that follow.

From which part of this figure will the nervous system develop?

A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
D) part D

Question 78

Which process does not aid expulsion of an infant by contractions during labor?

A) oxytocin produced by the mother
B) increased number of hormone receptors on uterine cells
C) oxytocin produced by the fetus
D) HCG produced by the mother

Question 79

You are observing a developing embryo under a microscope and see that it has a space in the middle of the endoderm, but no features of a notochord are present. In which stage of development is this embryo?

A) zygote
B) blastula
C) gastrula
D) fetus

Question 80

Use the figure below to answer the questions that follow.

In which part of the human female reproductive system would an IUD be placed?

A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
D) part D