Deck 9: Elections, Campaigns, and Voting

Question 1

Who can vote in a closed primary election?

A) anyone, even unregistered voters
B) any registered voter of any party, and independents
C) any registered voter of any party except independents
D) only registered voters of members of that party
E) None of these answers is correct.

Answer 1

D

Question 2

Direct forms of political participation include

A) voting.
B) volunteering on a campaign.
C) running for office.
D) answering Internet political surveys.
E) volunteering on a campaign, running for office, and voting.

Answer 2

E

Question 3

All of the following are influential factors in general election competitiveness EXCEPT

A) the presence of incumbency.
B) the strength of incumbency.
C) party competition.
D) candidate party affiliation.
E) level of office.

Answer 3

D

Question 4

In many states, what percentage of votes must a candidate receive in a general election to avoid a runoff election?

A) 50 percent
B) 55 percent
C) 60 percent
D) 65 percent
E) 70 percent

Question 5

Today, party voters select delegates at state party meetings known as

A) caucuses.
B) congresses.
C) secretariats.
D) commissions.
E) GOTV rallies.

Question 6

Which of the following is the best example of grassroots organizing?

A) fund-raising
B) candidate selection
C) drafting the party's platform
D) GOTV activities
E) All these answers are correct.

Question 7

In the United States, most general elections are held in what month?

A) February
B) March
C) October
D) November
E) June

Question 8

What technology has facilitated the use of instant runoff elections?

A) computers
B) mobile technologies and devices
C) cellular phones
D) computerized voting machines
E) touch-screen voting portals

Question 9

Identify the correct chronological order among the following, starting with which comes first.

A) primary election, general election, candidate nomination
B) candidate nomination, primary election, general election
C) primary election, candidate nomination, general election
D) general election, candidate nomination, primary election
E) general election, primary election, candidate nomination

Question 10

Which of the following statements about who can vote in primary elections is the most accurate?

A) All registered voters can vote in primary elections.
B) Only registered party members are eligible to vote in primary elections.
C) Who can vote in primary elections varies from state to state.
D) All citizens can vote in primary elections, regardless of registration status or party affiliation.
E) Only popularly nominated delegates can vote in primaries.

Question 11

Who can vote in an open primary election?

A) anyone, even unregistered voters
B) any registered voter of any party, and independents
C) any registered voter of any party except independents
D) only registered voters of members of that party
E) only preapproved registered voters of members of that party

Question 12

Which of these groups controls the timing of primary elections?

A) registered voters
B) national party organizations
C) the states
D) the Federal Election Commission
E) the Supreme Court

Question 13

In general elections for Congress, how many votes must a candidate receive in order to win?

A) 50 percent of the vote
B) a majority of the vote
C) the most votes
D) 50 percent of the vote, plus one
E) a preponderance of the votes

Question 14

In which month is Super Tuesday, the day on which most presidential primary elections take place?

A) February
B) March
C) October
D) November
E) June

Question 15

What type of election allows voters to cut an officeholder's term short?

A) recall election
B) runoff election
C) instant runoff election
D) primary election
E) runoff primary election

Question 16

Which of the following best describes a proposition?

A) a special election
B) a proposed measure
C) a referendum
D) an instant runoff election
E) a winner-take-all election

Question 17

Which groups typically sponsor initiatives, or initiative petitions?

A) citizens' groups
B) interest groups
C) county governments
D) state legislatures
E) citizens' and interest groups

Question 18

Which year saw both parties make significant reforms that increased party-voter influence for candidate selection?

A) 1948
B) 1960
C) 1968
D) 1972
E) 1988

Question 19

In a referendum, voters in a state can vote for or against a measure proposed by whom?

A) citizens
B) interest groups
C) county governments
D) state legislatures
E) state Supreme Courts

Question 20

In U.S. presidential primaries, who decides which candidate receives the national party nomination?

A) party-registered voters
B) local party leaders
C) state party organizations
D) national party leaders
E) locally-selected delegates

Question 21

All of the following are considered informal qualifications for federal office EXCEPT

A) possession of a college degree.
B) considerable professional experience.
C) strong communications skills.
D) age and gender.
E) ethnicity and religious affiliation.

Question 22

Which of the following best describes what motivates individuals to run for office?

A) a sense of civic responsibility
B) party loyalty and allegiance
C) desire for financial and personal gain
D) personal goals and a desire for greater name recognition
E) civic responsibility, party allegiance, personal goals, and desire for greater name recognition

Question 23

What age limit for senatorial office is codified by Article I of the Constitution?

A) at least 25 years old
B) at least 28 years old
C) at least 30 years old
D) at least 35 years old
E) at least 38 years old

Question 24

What age limit for election to the House of Representatives is codified by Article I of the Constitution?

A) at least 25 years old
B) at least 28 years old
C) at least 30 years old
D) at least 35 years old
E) at least 38 years old

Question 25

Lacking in the original legislation, what was the most important provision in the 1974 amendments to the Federal Election Campaign Act?

A) a voluntary tax return check-off for qualified presidential candidates
B) limits on campaign expenditures
C) creation of an enforcement mechanism
D) limits on campaign finances
E) public financing for all candidates

Question 26

Contributions to political parties designated for so-called party-building activities are known as

A) PAC donations.
B) soft money.
C) independent expenditures.
D) grants-in-kind.
E) extra-campaign contributions.

Question 27

Which of the following conducts focus groups to determine candidate strengths and weaknesses?

A) campaign manager
B) pollster
C) fundraising consultant
D) media consultant
E) campaign strategist

Question 28

During the presidential election of 2000, which state's voting system came under enormous scrutiny because of paper perforations known as chads?

A) California
B) New York
C) South Carolina
D) Florida
E) Ohio

Question 29

Which of the following is an effect of the office-block ballot?

A) Candidates for lower-level offices are more likely to benefit from the popularity of a top-of-ticket nominee.
B) Voters are less likely to know which party the candidates represent.
C) Voters are more likely to split their ticket.
D) The secrecy of the ballot is more difficult to maintain.
E) Voters are more likely to vote absentee.

Question 30

Today, most political campaigns are conducted and managed by

A) party volunteers.
B) unpaid campaign consultants.
C) paid campaign consultants.
D) local electoral officials.
E) political party organizations.

Question 31

All of the following are factors cited by some scholars as disadvantages of voting by mail EXCEPT

A) a lack of access to late information about candidates.
B) that it may undermine feelings of civic engagement.
C) that chances of fraud are increased.
D) that it leads to a reduction of privacy.
E) a likely decrease in voter participation.

Question 32

Due to the popularity of voting by mail, which state has recently abandoned voting in polling places on Election Day?

A) Washington
B) California
C) Oregon
D) Idaho
E) Nevada

Question 33

Which type of ballot generally leads to the coattail effect, where down-ballot candidates benefit from the popularity of those listed above them?

A) party-column ballot
B) Australian ballot
C) butterfly ballot
D) office-block ballot
E) absentee ballot

Question 34

What is the major significance of the Supreme Court's ruling in Buckley v. Valeo?

A) All political expenditures are protected by the First Amendment.
B) PACs can legally coordinate expenditures with political campaigns.
C) A PAC's contributions to a political candidate cannot be limited.
D) Congress can limit overall campaign spending.
E) Independent expenditures are protected by law against limitations.

Question 35

The Supreme Court upheld the constitutionality of the McCain-Feingold Act in McConnell v. the Federal Election Commission. What portion of that act did the Supreme Court invalidate in its 2007 ruling in Federal Election Commission v. Wisconsin Right to Life, Inc.?

A) ban on independent expenditures
B) ban on limits to overall campaign expenditures
C) ban on issue-based ads within the 30- and 60-day election window
D) limitations on advertisements and donations from corporations and labor unions
E) restriction on public funding of political candidates

Question 36

Efforts to limit the influence of money on political campaigns started after

A) the Supreme Court's ruling in Citizens United v. The Federal Election Commission during Barack Obama's presidency.
B) the Teapot Dome scandal during Warren Harding's presidency.
C) passage of the McCain-Feingold legislation during George W. Bush's presidency.
D) passage of the Hatch Act during the presidency of Franklin D. Roosevelt.
E) Congress passed the Federal Election Campaign Act during Richard Nixon's presidency.

Question 37

All of the following are true about balloting in the United States EXCEPT that

A) the secret ballot is used.
B) the government prepares the ballot.
C) when balloting is complete, the ballots are counted by government officials.
D) methods of balloting are constitutionally stipulated.
E) the Australian ballot is used.

Question 38

Which of the following describes a factor or factors in determining eligibility and qualifications for elected office at the state level?

A) citizenship
B) residency
C) age
D) place of birth, and gender
E) age, residency, and citizenship

Question 39

What age limit for presidential office is codified by Article I of the Constitution?

A) at least 25 years old
B) at least 28 years old
C) at least 30 years old
D) at least 35 years old
E) at least 38 years old

Question 40

Which anticorruption reform is also known as the Hatch Act of 1939?

A) Federal Corrupt Practices Act
B) Political Activities Act
C) Federal Election Campaign Act
D) Bipartisan Campaign Finance Reform Act
E) McCain-Feingold Act

Question 41

Outline how new technologies have changed the conduct of political campaigns in recent years.

Question 42

Explain the difference between a referendum and an initiative.

Question 43

Discuss the increased use of, and various functions performed by, political consultants in recent elections.

Question 44

Which of these factors is most important in determining voter participation?

A) age
B) income level
C) education level
D) gender
E) ethnicity

Question 45

Tax-exempt groups that raise money for political activities are known as ________.

A) 527s
B) 501c3s
C) 502s
D) 501c4s
E) 521s

Question 46

Over the last few years, political campaigns have grown

A) increasingly positive.
B) somewhat more positive.
C) neither positive nor negative.
D) somewhat more negative.
E) increasingly negative.

Question 47

Which of the following statements about age and voting in the United States is most accurate?

A) Because of initiatives like MTV's Rock the Vote, young people are more likely to vote than the middle-aged.
B) The youth turnout rate for President Obama's 2008 election broke turnout-rate records.
C) Since the 2008 presidential election, youth turnout rates have continued to rise.
D) Eighteen-year-olds were first given the right to vote in 1972.
E) As Americans age, they are less likely to vote.

Question 48

In the United States, the length of presidential campaigns tends to lead to voter fatigue. How long do presidential campaigns in the United States generally last?

A) over three years
B) over one year
C) up to a year
D) six to nine months
E) three to six months

Question 49

A voter who evaluates candidates based on the candidates' positions and votes for the candidate that best represent his or her views is a(n)

A) retrospective voter.
B) salient voter.
C) issues voter.
D) prospective voter.
E) absentee voter

Question 50

Compare and contrast open and closed primary elections.

Question 51

Explain the relationship between party competitiveness and voter turnout.

Question 52

Outline the four types of motivation generally in play when individuals run for political office.

Question 53

Define a caucus, and explain its function in elections.

Question 54

Outline and discuss the key features of the Australian ballot system.

Question 55

Which of the following is a major result of the Supreme Court's ruling in Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission?

A) decreased importance of money in politics
B) growth of the Super PACs
C) candidates having a more difficult time soliciting individual donors
D) decreased influence of traditional PACs
E) All of these answers are correct.

Question 56

How many electors are there in the Electoral College?

A) 100
B) 103
C) 435
D) 535
E) 538

Question 57

On which of these types of issues are voters willing to base their vote?

A) party-based issues
B) personal issues
C) liberty issues
D) salient issues
E) controversial issues

Question 58

Identify the chief advantages of absentee voting.

Question 59

Outline how elections offer opportunities for citizen involvement in the political process.

Question 60

What theory states that making the conscious choice not to vote is rational and logical?

A) rational abstention thesis
B) voter fatigue thesis
C) cumulative cost thesis
D) rational actor thesis
E) nonvoter rationalization thesis