Deck 38: Nervous and Sensory Systems

Question 1

Choose the correct match of glial cell type and function.

A) astrocytes-metabolize neurotransmitters and modulate synaptic effectiveness
B) oligodendrocytes-produce the myelin sheaths of myelinated neurons in the peripheral nervous system
C) microglia-produce the myelin sheaths of myelinated neurons in the central nervous system
D) radial glia-the source of immunoprotection against pathogens.
E) Schwann cells-provide nutritional support to nonmyelinated neurons

Answer 1

A

Question 2

The bottlenose dolphin breathes air but can sleep in the ocean because it

A) ceases breathing while sleeping and remains underwater.
B) sleeps for only 30 minutes at a time, the maximum interval for which it can cease breathing.
C) fills its swim bladder with air to keep its blowhole above the surface of the water while it sleeps.
D) moves to shallow water to sleep, so it does not need to swim to keep its blowhole above the surface of the water.
E) alternates which half of its brain is asleep and which half is awake.

Answer 2

E

Question 3

The central nervous system is lacking in animals that have

A) a complete gut.
B) bilateral symmetry.
C) radial symmetry.
D) a closed circulatory system.
E) excitable membranes.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Central coordination of vertebrate biological rhythms in physiology and behavior resides in the

A) pituitary gland.
B) hypothalamus.
C) cerebrum.
D) cerebellum.
E) thalamus.

Question 5

The divisions of the nervous system that have antagonistic, or opposing, actions are the

A) motor and sensory systems.
B) sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.
C) presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes.
D) forebrain and hindbrain.
E) central nervous system and peripheral nervous system.

Question 6

In a cephalized invertebrate, the system that transmits "efferent" impulses from the anterior ganglion to distal segments is the

A) central nervous system.
B) peripheral nervous system.
C) autonomic nervous system.
D) parasympathetic nervous system.
E) sympathetic nervous system.

Question 7

Exercise and emergency reactions include

A) increased activity in all parts of the peripheral nervous system.
B) increased activity in the sympathetic division and decreased activity in the parasympathetic division.
C) decreased activity in the sympathetic division and increased activity in the parasympathetic division.
D) increased activity in the enteric nervous system.
E) reduced heart rate and blood pressure.

Question 8

Cephalization, the clustering of neurons and interneurons in the anterior part of the animal, is apparent in

A) Hydra.
B) cnidarians.
C) Planaria.
D) sea stars.
E) invertebrate animals with radial symmetry.

Question 9

The telencephalon region of the developing brain of a mammal

A) develops as the neural tube differentiates.
B) develops from the midbrain.
C) is the brain region most like that of ancestral vertebrates.
D) gives rise to the cerebrum.
E) divides further into the metencephalon and myelencephalon.

Question 10

The 11 pairs of appendages projecting from the rostral area of star-nosed moles are

A) chemosensory structures.
B) tactile structures.
C) olfactory structures.
D) highly sensitive photoreceptors.
E) gustatory structures.

Question 11

Preparation for the fight-or-flight response includes activation of the ________ nervous system.

A) sympathetic
B) somatic
C) central
D) visceral
E) parasympathetic

Question 12

The cerebrospinal fluid is

A) a filtrate of the blood.
B) a secretion of glial cells.
C) a secretion of interneurons.
D) cytosol secreted from ependymal cells.
E) secreted by the hypothalamus.

Question 13

Imagine you are resting comfortably on a sofa after dinner. This could be described as a state with

A) increased activity in the sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric nervous systems.
B) decreased activity in the sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric nervous systems.
C) decreased activity in the sympathetic nervous system, and increased activity in the parasympathetic and enteric nervous systems.
D) increased activity in the sympathetic nervous system, and decreased activity in the parasympathetic and enteric nervous systems.
E) increased activity in the sympathetic nervous system, decreased activity in the parasympathetic nervous system, and increased activity in the enteric nervous system.

Question 14

The system that modulates excitation and inhibition of the smooth and cardiac muscles of the digestive, cardiovascular, and excretory systems is the

A) central nervous system.
B) motor system.
C) autonomic nervous system.
D) parasympathetic nervous system.
E) sympathetic nervous system.

Question 15

The endogenous nature of biological rhythms is based on the observation that animals isolated from light and dark cues

A) continue to have cycles of exactly 24 hours in duration.
B) continue to have cycles of approximately 24 hours in duration-some more rapid, some slower.
C) synchronize activity with whatever lighting cycle is imposed on them.
D) cease having any rhythms.
E) are independent of any genetic determinants.

Question 16

The activation of the parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system is associated with

A) resting and digesting.
B) release of epinephrine into the blood.
C) increased metabolic rate.
D) fight-or-flight responses.
E) intensive aerobic exercise.

Question 17

Myelinated neurons are especially abundant in

A) the gray matter of the brain and the white matter of the spinal cord.
B) the white matter of the brain and the gray matter of the spinal cord.
C) the gray matter of the brain and the gray matter of the spinal cord.
D) the white matter in the brain and the white matter in the spinal cord.
E) all areas of the brain and spinal cord.

Question 18

Cerebrospinal fluid can be described as all of the following except

A) functioning in transport of nutrients and hormones through the brain.
B) a product of the filtration of blood in the brain.
C) formed from layers of connective tissue.
D) functioning to cushion the brain.
E) filling cavities in the brain called ventricles.

Question 19

The blood-brain barrier

A) is formed by tight junctions.
B) is formed by oligodendrocytes.
C) tightly regulates the intracellular environment of the CNS.
D) uses chemical signals to communicate with the spinal cord.
E) provides support to the brain tissue.

Question 20

Afferent neuronal systems include the

A) sensory systems.
B) peripheral nervous system.
C) autonomic nervous system.
D) parasympathetic nervous system.
E) sympathetic nervous system.

Question 21

Hormones that are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland are made in the

A) cerebrum.
B) cerebellum.
C) thalamus.
D) hypothalamus.
E) medulla oblongata.

Question 22

If you were writing an essay, the part of your brain that would be actively involved in this task is

A) the temporal and frontal lobes.
B) the parietal lobe.
C) Broca's area.
D) Wernicke's area.
E) the occipital lobe.

Question 23

Our understanding of mental illness has been most advanced by discoveries involving the

A) degree of convolutions in the brain's surface.
B) evolution of the telencephalon.
C) sequence of developmental specialization.
D) chemicals involved in brain communications.
E) nature of the blood-brain barrier.

Question 24

Wernicke's and Broca's regions of the brain affect

A) olfaction.
B) vision.
C) speech.
D) memory.
E) hearing.

Question 25

Calculation, contemplation, and cognition are human activities associated with increased activity in the

A) pituitary gland.
B) hypothalamus.
C) cerebrum.
D) cerebellum.
E) spinal cord.

Question 26

Wernicke's area

A) is active when speech is heard and comprehended.
B) is active during the generation of speech.
C) coordinates the response to olfactory sensation.
D) is active when you are reading silently.
E) is found on the left side of the brain.

Question 27

Short-term memory information processing usually causes changes in the

A) brainstem.
B) medulla.
C) hypothalamus.
D) hippocampus.
E) cranial nerves.

Question 28

Which of the following shows a brain structure correctly paired with one of its primary functions?

A) frontal lobe-decision making
B) occipital lobe-control of skeletal muscles
C) temporal lobe-visual processing
D) cerebellum-language comprehension
E) occipital lobe-speech production

Question 29

Food and water appetites are under the regulatory influence of the

A) cerebrum.
B) cerebellum.
C) thalamus.
D) hypothalamus.
E) medulla oblongata.

Question 30

An organism that lacks integration centers

A) cannot receive stimuli.
B) will not have a nervous system.
C) will not be able to interpret stimuli.
D) can be expected to lack myelinated neurons.

Question 31

Failure of an embryonic neuron to establish a synaptic connection to another cell

A) converts that neuron to an ependymal cell.
B) causes the neuron to migrate to another part of the brain.
C) converts that neuron to a glial cell.
D) leads to Alzheimer's disease.
E) results in the apoptosis of that neuron.

Question 32

Increases and decreases of the heart rate result from changes in the activity of the

A) corpus callosum.
B) medulla oblongata.
C) thalamus.
D) pituitary.
E) cerebellum.

Question 33

In mammals, advanced cognition is usually correlated with a large and very convoluted neocortex, but birds are capable of sophisticated cognition because they have

A) a more advanced cerebellum.
B) a cerebellum with several flat layers.
C) a pallium with neurons clustered into nuclei.
D) microvilli to increase the brain's surface area.

Question 34

The regulatory centers for the respiratory and circulatory systems are found in the

A) cerebrum.
B) cerebellum.
C) thalamus.
D) hypothalamus.
E) medulla oblongata.

Question 35

Which of the following structures are correctly paired?

A) forebrain and medulla oblongata
B) forebrain and cerebellum
C) midbrain and cerebrum
D) hindbrain and cerebellum
E) brainstem and anterior pituitary gland

Question 36

The coordination of groups of skeletal muscles is driven by activity in the

A) cerebrum.
B) cerebellum.
C) thalamus.
D) hypothalamus.
E) medulla oblongata.

Question 37

The regulation of body temperature derives from the activity of the

A) cerebrum.
B) cerebellum.
C) thalamus.
D) hypothalamus.
E) medulla oblongata.

Question 38

The unconscious control of respiration and circulation is associated with the

A) thalamus.
B) cerebellum.
C) medulla oblongata.
D) corpus callosum.
E) cerebrum.

Question 39

The suprachiasmatic nuclei are found in the

A) thalamus.
B) hypothalamus.
C) epithalamus.
D) amygdala.
E) Broca's area.

Question 40

The motor cortex is part of the

A) cerebrum.
B) cerebellum.
C) spinal cord.
D) midbrain.
E) medulla oblongata.

Question 41

Proteins coded by a very large family of related genes are active in the sensory transduction of

A) gustatory stimuli.
B) olfactory stimuli.
C) visual stimuli.
D) auditory stimuli.
E) stimuli related to the position of the head.

Question 42

A ligand for the umami receptor in the sense of taste is

A) glucose.
B) sodium ions.
C) potassium ions.
D) hydrogen ions.
E) monosodium glutamate.

Question 43

An injury to the occipital lobe will likely impair the function of the

A) primary visual cortex.
B) thalamus.
C) optic chiasma.
D) sense of taste.
E) sense of touch.

Question 44

When Phineas Gage had a metal rod driven into his frontal lobe he experienced

A) loss of the ability to reason.
B) loss of all short-term memory.
C) greatly altered emotional responses.
D) loss of all long-term memory.
E) loss of his sense of balance.

Question 45

Choose the correct sequence of the following events leading to the sensory processing of a stimulus. 1. transmission
2) transduction
3) integration
4) amplification

A) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4
B) 1 → 4 → 2 → 3
C) 2 → 4 → 1 → 3
D) 3 → 1 → 2 → 4
E) 3 → 1 → 4 → 2

Question 46

The generation of action potentials in olfactory neurons initiated by odors drawn into the nasal cavity is an example of

A) perception.
B) sensory transduction.
C) sensory adaptation.
D) habituation.
E) lateral inhibition.

Question 47

Tastes and smells are distinct kinds of environmental information in that

A) neural projections from taste receptors reach different parts of the brain than the neural projections from olfactory receptors.
B) the single area of the cerebral cortex that receives smell and taste signals can distinguish tastes and smells by the pattern of action potentials received.
C) tastant molecules are airborne, whereas odorant molecules are dissolved in fluids.
D) distinguishing tastant molecules requires learning, whereas smell discrimination is an innate process.
E) odorants bind to receptor proteins, but none of the tastant stimuli will bind to receptors.

Question 48

The olfactory bulbs are located in the

A) nasal cavity.
B) anterior pituitary gland.
C) posterior pituitary gland.
D) brain.
E) brainstem.

Question 49

A given photon of light may trigger an action potential with thousands of times more energy because the signal strength is magnified by

A) the receptor.
B) a G protein.
C) an enzyme-catalyzed reaction.
D) sensory adaptation.
E) triggering several receptors at once.

Question 50

Umami perception would be stimulated by

A) sugar water.
B) chocolate milk.
C) a savory and rich cheese.
D) acidic orange juice.
E) salt water.

Question 51

The correct sequence of sensory processing is

A) sensory adaptation → stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory perception.
B) stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory perception → sensory adaptation.
C) sensory perception → stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory adaptation.
D) sensory perception → sensory transduction → stimulus reception → sensory adaptation.
E) stimulus reception → sensory perception → sensory adaptation → sensory transduction.

Question 52

Stimuli alter the activity of excitable sensory cells via

A) integration.
B) transmission.
C) transduction.
D) transcription.
E) amplification.

Question 53

The cellular membrane across which ion flow varies during auditory transduction is the

A) tectorial membrane.
B) tympanic membrane.
C) round-window membrane.
D) hair cell membrane.
E) basilar membrane.

Question 54

Forming new long-term memories is strikingly disrupted after damage to the

A) thalamus.
B) hypothalamus.
C) hippocampus.
D) somatosensory cortex.
E) primary motor cortex.

Question 55

Artificial electrical stimulation of a human's capsaicin-sensitive neurons would likely produce the sensation of

A) cold temperature.
B) hot temperature.
C) tactile stimulus.
D) odor of pepper.
E) deep pressure.

Question 56

Immediately after putting on a shirt, your skin might feel itchy. However, this perception soon fades due to

A) sensory adaptation.
B) accommodation.
C) the increase of transduction.
D) reduced motor unit recruitment.
E) reduced receptor amplification.

Question 57

Artificial electrical stimulation of a human's menthol-sensitive neurons would likely produce the sensation of

A) cold temperature.
B) hot temperature.
C) tactile stimulus.
D) odor of pepper.
E) deep pressure.

Question 58

An earthworm without a statocyst would not be able to

A) move.
B) sense light.
C) hear.
D) orient with respect to gravity.
E) respond to touch.

Question 59

Statocysts contain cells that are

A) mechanoreceptors used to detect orientation relative to gravity.
B) chemoreceptors used in selecting migration routes.
C) photoreceptors used in setting biological rhythms.
D) thermoreceptors used in prey detection.
E) chemoreceptors used in acid-base balance.

Question 60

Sound waves arriving at a listener first strike the

A) tectorial membrane.
B) tympanic membrane.
C) round-window membrane.
D) hair cell membrane.
E) basilar membrane.

Question 61

Refer to the illustration of the limbic system in Figure 38.1 to help answer the next few questions.
Figure 38.1
In Figure 38.1, which letter points to the thalamus?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E

Question 62

Refer to the illustration of the limbic system in Figure 38.1 to help answer the next few questions.
Figure 38.1
In Figure 38.1, which letter points to the hippocampus?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E

Question 63

In the human retina

A) cone cells can detect color, but rod cells cannot.
B) cone cells are more sensitive than rod cells to light.
C) cone cells, but not rod cells, have a visual pigment.
D) rod cells are most highly concentrated in the center of the retina.
E) rod cells require higher illumination for stimulation than do cone cells.

Question 64

It can be very difficult to select an angle for sneaking up to a grasshopper to catch it because grasshoppers have

A) excellent hearing for detecting predators.
B) compound eyes with multiple ommatidia.
C) eyes with multiple fovea.
D) a camera-like eye with multiple fovea.
E) binocular vision.

Question 65

Rods exposed to light will

A) depolarize due to the opening of sodium channels.
B) hyperpolarize due to the closing of sodium channels.
C) depolarize due to the opening of potassium channels.
D) hyperpolarize due to the closing of potassium channels.
E) fire one action potential for each photon received.

Question 66

The next questions refer to the diagram of the ear in Figure 38.3.
Figure 38.3
The organ of Corti is contained in the structure numbered

A) 3.
B) 4.
C) 5.
D) 6.
E) 7.

Question 67

The next questions refer to the diagram of the ear in Figure 38.3.
Figure 38.3
Vibrations of the tympanic membrane are transmitted to the oval window by the structures at which numbers?

A) 1, 2, 3, and 4
B) 2, 3, and 4
C) 3 and 4
D) 4
E) 5

Question 68

The pathway leading to the perception of sound by mammals begins with the

A) hair cells of the organ of Corti, which rests on the basilar membrane, coming in contact with the tectorial membrane.
B) hair cells of the organ of Corti, which rests on the tympanic membrane, coming in contact with the tectorial membrane.
C) hair cells of the organ of Corti, which rests on the tectorial membrane, coming in contact with the basilar membrane.
D) hair cells of the organ of Corti coming in contact with the tectorial membrane as a result of fluid waves in the cochlea causing vibrations in the round window.
E) hair cells on the tympanic membrane as a result of fluid waves in the cochlea causing vibrations in the round window.

Question 69

Refer to the illustration of the limbic system in Figure 38.1 to help answer the next few questions.
Figure 38.1
In Figure 38.1, which letter points to the hypothalamus?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E

Question 70

Dizziness is a perceived sensation that can occur when

A) the hair cells in the cochlea move more than their normal limits.
B) moving fluid in the semicircular canals encounters a stationary cupula.
C) rods and cones provide information that does not correspond with information received by cochlear hair cells.
D) the basilar membrane makes physical contact with the tectorial membrane.
E) the utricle is horizontal but the saccule is vertical.

Question 71

Refer to the illustration of the limbic system in Figure 38.1 to help answer the next few questions.
Figure 38.1
In Figure 38.1, which letter points to the olfactory bulb?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E

Question 72

The next questions refer to the diagram of the ear in Figure 38.3.
Figure 38.3
The sense of head motion begins with sensory transduction by the structures at which numbers?

A) 2, 3, and 4
B) 2, 5, and 7
C) 4
D) 5
E) 7 and 8

Question 73

The perceived pitch of a sound depends on

A) which part of the tympanic membrane is being vibrated by sound waves.
B) which part of the oval window produces waves in the cochlear fluid.
C) which region of the basilar membrane was set in motion.
D) whether or not the sound moves the incus, malleus, and stapes.
E) the listener having had training in music.

Question 74

Figure 38.2
The structure diagrammed in Figure 38.2 is the

A) neuromast.
B) statocyst.
C) taste bud.
D) ommatidium.
E) olfactory bulb.

Question 75

The sand grains or other dense materials resting on mechanoreceptors used by most invertebrates to sense gravity are called

A) cochlea.
B) statoliths.
C) stapes.
D) pinnae.
E) antennae.

Question 76

Sensory transduction of light/dark information in the vertebrate retina is accomplished by

A) ganglion cells.
B) amacrine cells.
C) bipolar cells.
D) horizontal cells.
E) rods and cones.

Question 77

The cochlea is an organ of auditory transduction that contains

A) fluid and cells that can undergo mechanosensory transduction.
B) air and cells that produce wax.
C) air and small bones that vibrate in response to sound waves.
D) fluid with stacks of chemosensory cells.
E) air and statocysts activated by movement.

Question 78

The next questions refer to the diagram of the ear in Figure 38.3.
Figure 38.3
The structure involved in equalizing the pressure between the ear and the atmosphere is represented by number

A) 7.
B) 1.
C) 8.
D) 9.
E) 10.

Question 79

A rod exposed to light will

A) fire action potentials that will increase its release of glutamate.
B) undergo a graded depolarization that will increase its release of glutamate.
C) undergo a graded hyperpolarization that will increase its release of glutamate.
D) undergo a graded depolarization that will decrease its release of glutamate.
E) undergo a graded hyperpolarization that will decrease its release of glutamate.

Question 80

Refer to the illustration of the limbic system in Figure 38.1 to help answer the next few questions.
Figure 38.1
In Figure 38.1, which letter points to the amygdala?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E