Deck 12: Blood, Lymph, and Lymph Nodes

Question 1

Which of the following cells is the most primitive?

A) megakaryoblast
B) megakaryocyte
C) pluripotential stem cell
D) unipotential stem cell

Answer 1

pluripotential stem cell

Question 2

A megakaryocyte will eventually produce

A) erythrocytes.
B) monocytes.
C) neutrophils.
D) thrombocytes.

Answer 2

thrombocytes.

Question 3

What nutrient do erythrocytes utilize to stay alive in a blood collection tube filled with blood?

A) calcium
B) glucose
C) iron
D) vitamin B₁₂

Answer 3

glucose

Question 4

If an anticoagulant is used when collecting a blood sample, the fluid obtained from the sample after it has been centrifuged is

A) peripheral blood.
B) plasma.
C) serum.
D) whole blood.

Question 5

What gives hemoglobin its natural color?

A) the carbon dioxide molecule
B) the globin molecule
C) the heme molecule
D) the oxygen molecule

Question 6

An example of an agranulocytic leukocyte is a/an

A) basophil.
B) erythrocyte.
C) lymphocyte.
D) neutrophil.

Question 7

There are 13 clotting factors. What is the minimum number of factors that can be deficient or absent before blood will not clot?

A) 0
B) 1
C) 7
D) 13

Question 8

One hemoglobin molecule can carry how many molecules of oxygen?

A) 16
B) 2
C) 4
D) 8

Question 9

The rate of erythropoiesis is controlled by erythropoietin, which is a/an

A) enzyme produced by the kidney.
B) enzyme produced by the spleen.
C) hormone produced by the kidney.
D) hormone produced by the spleen.

Question 10

An animal that has been vomiting frequently for the past 5 days and has been eating or drinking very little will most likely suffer from

A) hematopoiesis.
B) hemoconcentration.
C) hemodilution.
D) hemolysis.

Question 11

A term that describes normal monocyte production is

A) monocytoblastosis.
B) monocytopenia.
C) monocytopoiesis.
D) monocytosis.

Question 12

Polychromasia seen erythrocytes is a sign of

A) acid/base imbalance.
B) cell death.
C) dehydration.
D) immaturity.

Question 13

An NRBC (nucleated RBC) is __ a mature erythrocyte.

A) from a different cell line than
B) less mature than
C) more mature than
D) the same as

Question 14

Granulocytes are blood cells that have

A) red, blue, or yellow granules in their cytoplasm during the entire cellular maturation process.
B) red, blue, or yellow granules in their cytoplasm when the cells are mature.
C) specific granules in their cytoplasm that become nonspecific as the cell matures.
D) specific granules in their cytoplasm when the cells are mature.

Question 15

EDTA is a/an

A) anticoagulant.
B) clotting factor.
C) hematology stain.
D) plasma protein.

Question 16

In a 3-year-old sheep most leukocyte production takes place in the

A) liver.
B) red bone marrow.
C) spleen.
D) yellow bone marrow.

Question 17

How many heme molecules are contained in one hemoglobin molecule?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

Question 18

Oxygen carried in a hemoglobin molecule is bound to a/an

A) calcium atom.
B) globin molecule.
C) iron atom.
D) protein molecule.

Question 19

Yellow bone marrow is composed primarily of

A) fat cells.
B) fibrous connective tissue.
C) immature erythrocytes.
D) immature leukocytes.

Question 20

Which mature blood cell is described as a non-nucleated biconcave disc?

A) erythrocyte
B) lymphocyte
C) monocyte
D) thrombocyte

Question 21

A senescent erythrocyte is a/an __ erythrocyte.

A) aged
B) deformed
C) immature
D) nucleated

Question 22

Jaundice (icterus) could be a result of

A) decreased amounts of conjugated bilirubin.
B) decreased intravascular hemolysis.
C) excessive amounts of glucuronic acid.
D) excessive amounts of unconjugated bilirubin.

Question 23

White blood cells use peripheral blood for

A) immunity.
B) maturation.
C) production.
D) transportation.

Question 24

Stercobilin is a/an

A) amino acid.
B) bacteria.
C) nutrient.
D) pigment.

Question 25

The PMN is also known as a/an

A) eosinophil.
B) lymphocyte.
C) monocyte.
D) neutrophil.

Question 26

What is the minimum number of nuclear lobes seen in a hypersegmented neutrophil?

A) 3
B) 5
C) 6
D) 8

Question 27

Where do neutrophils mature in a normal, healthy animal?

A) circulating pool
B) marginal pool
C) red bone marrow
D) tissue

Question 28

Which one of the following blood tests would measure the average size of an erythrocyte in a blood sample?

A) mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration
B) mean corpuscular volume
C) red cell distribution width
D) reticulocyte count

Question 29

You are looking at a stained smear of horse blood and you see a leukocyte with large red granules in its cytoplasm. What cell are you most likely seeing?

A) basophil
B) eosinophil
C) lymphocyte
D) monocyte

Question 30

If you counted 95% neutrophils on a cow's differential white blood cell count and the normal range is 15% to 33%, this would be classified as a

A) leukocytopenia.
B) leukocytosis.
C) neutropenia.
D) neutrophilia.

Question 31

When performing a manual differential white blood cell count, how many white blood cells do you count per stained blood smear?

A) 1000 white blood cells
B) 100 white blood cells
C) 500 white blood cells
D) 80 white blood cells

Question 32

The organ in an animal's body that is the primary site of extravascular hemolysis is the

A) kidney.
B) liver.
C) lung.
D) spleen.

Question 33

If immature neutrophils are observed in peripheral blood, the condition is called a

A) left shift.
B) leukemia.
C) leukopenia.
D) right shift.

Question 34

An immature neutrophil with a horseshoe-shaped nucleus is called a

A) band cell.
B) metamyelocyte.
C) myelocyte.
D) promyelocyte.

Question 35

The function of all white blood cells is

A) antibody production.
B) defense.
C) phagocytosis.
D) toxin neutralization.

Question 36

The process by which blood is prevented from leaking out of damaged blood vessels is

A) hematocytosis.
B) hematopoiesis.
C) hemolysis.
D) hemostasis.

Question 37

During hemostasis which process occurs first?

A) coagulation cascade
B) fibrinolysis
C) platelet adhesion
D) platelet aggregation

Question 38

Stercobilinogen is a breakdown product of

A) amino acids.
B) globin.
C) heme.
D) liver cells.

Question 39

The normal reference range for the hematocrit in an adult dog is 35% to 57%. Allover, an adult Golden Retriever, has a hematocrit of 15%. This is an indication that Allover might

A) be anemic.
B) be dehydrated.
C) have circulating immature erythrocytes.
D) have larger than normal circulating erythrocytes.

Question 40

The PCV is determined using

A) plasma only.
B) serum only.
C) whole blood with an anticoagulant added.
D) whole blood with no anticoagulant added.

Question 41

Which set of vessels may contain one-way valves to prevent backflow?

A) arteries and capillaries
B) arteries and veins
C) capillaries and lymph vessels
D) veins and lymph vessels

Question 42

The process by which a neutrophil squeezes between the cells of the endothelium to leave a blood vessel and enter tissue is called

A) chemotaxis.
B) diapedesis.
C) opsonization.
D) phagocytosis.

Question 43

This granulocyte's granules contain heparin.

A) basophil
B) eosinophil
C) lymphocyte
D) neutrophil

Question 44

Where would you look for the thymus in a young animal?

A) axillary region
B) cranial abdomen
C) cranial thorax
D) inguinal region

Question 45

Which vessel carries lymph into a lymph node?

A) afferent lymph vessel
B) efferent lymph vessel
C) lymph artery
D) thoracic duct

Question 46

Tonsils differ from lymph nodes in that they

A) are found along lymph vessels.
B) are found throughout the body.
C) are most prominent in older animals.
D) are not encapsulated.

Question 47

Which organ is capable of storing blood that can be released into circulation when the animal needs it?

A) kidney
B) liver
C) lymph node
D) spleen

Question 48

Natural killer cells are a type of

A) eosinophil.
B) lymphocyte.
C) monocyte.
D) neutrophil.

Question 49

Blastic transformation of B lymphocytes will produce

A) lymphoblasts.
B) memory cells.
C) plasma cells.
D) T lymphocytes.

Question 50

This granulocyte makes up less than 1% of the circulating leukocytes.

A) basophil
B) eosinophil
C) lymphocyte
D) monocyte

Question 51

You would most likely see postprandial lipemia

A) immediately following a surgical procedure.
B) shortly after an animal has been exercised.
C) shortly after an animal has eaten.
D) when an animal is stressed.

Question 52

Which leukocyte is responsible for cell-mediated immunity?

A) B lymphoctyte
B) monocyte
C) plasma cell
D) T lymphocyte

Question 53

The process by which neutrophils engulf invading foreign microorganisms is called

A) chemotaxis.
B) diapedesis.
C) opsonization.
D) phagocytosis.

Question 54

The process by which neutrophils are attracted to the site of an infection by the interaction between microorganisms and tissue is called

A) chemotaxis.
B) diapedesis.
C) opsonization.
D) phagocytosis.

Question 55

One antibody type has thousands of antigen receptors on its cell surface. How many types of antigens will typically fit these receptors?

A) 5
B) 1
C) 10
D) 20

Question 56

Along with tissue macrophages, which leukocytes make up the mononuclear phagocyte system?

A) eosinophils
B) lymphocytes
C) monocytes
D) neutrophils

Question 57

The organ that is made up of white pulp and red pulp is the

A) kidney.
B) liver.
C) lymph node.
D) spleen.

Question 58

Immunoglobulins are produced by which leukocyte?

A) B lymphocyte
B) monocyte
C) plasma cell
D) T lymphocyte

Question 59

When monocytes enter tissue they become

A) macrophages.
B) mast cells.
C) neutrophils.
D) NK cells.

Question 60

Lymph from the digestive tract is called

A) ascites.
B) chyle.
C) chyme.
D) edema.