Deck 8: Molecular Biology and Transcription and Rna Processing

Question 1

Which type of research technique was used to track newly synthesized RNA within a eukaryotic cell?

A)in situ hybridization
B)band shift assay
C)pulse-chase
D)Southern blotting
E)DNA footprint protection assay

Answer 1

C

Question 2

If transcription of this gene occurs from left to right in the accompanying diagram, which DNA strand is the coding (non-template)strand?

A)impossible to determine
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E

Answer 2

D

Question 3

A gene has acquired a mutation in which the protein product has an "extra" 50 amino acids at the end. Which region of the gene was likely mutated?

A)coding region
B)start codon
C)promoter sequence
D)terminator sequence
E)stop codon

Answer 3

E

Question 4

You want to design a drug that prevents transcription of mRNAs but does not affect transcription of other RNAs. What enzyme would you target?

A)RNA polymerase I
B)RNA polymerase II
C)RNA polymerase III
D)ribozyme
E)methyl transferase

Question 5

You wish to create a mutation in which you prevent access of RNA polymerase to the gene. Which region of a gene would you target?

A)coding region
B)start codon
C)promoter sequence
D)terminator sequence
E)stop codon

Question 6

Which of the following are present in your liver cells?

A)enhancers of genes expressed in the liver
B)enhancers of genes expressed in the kidney
C)promoters of genes expressed in the liver
D)promoters of genes expressed in the kidney
E)All of the above are present in liver cells

Question 7

Which region(s)of a gene are not found within the mRNA transcript?

A)promoter region
B)termination region
C)stop codon
D)promoter and stop codon
E)promoter and termination region

Question 8

If you want to prevent rho-dependent transcription, which sequences would you target to mutate the rho utilization (rut)site?

A)coding region
B)start codon
C)promoter sequence
D)terminator sequence
E)stop codon

Question 9

What is the -35 consensus sequence for the following sequences?

A)TTGATA
B)TATGAT
C)TATTAT
D)ACAA
E)TAGTAT

Question 10

Following a DNA footprint protection assay, which banding pattern would you expect to see if you identify a potential promoter region?

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

Question 11

Which type of RNA is translated within a cell?

A)tRNA
B)mRNA
C)rRNA
D)siRNA
E)all of the above

Question 12

You suspect a region of DNA contains a promoter and wish to confirm that a sequence of interest binds proteins. Which experiment would you use?

A)in situ hybridization
B)band shift assay
C)pulse-chase assay
D)Southern blotting
E)northern blotting

Question 13

Which assay allows you to identify the exact location of the protein-binding sequence within a promoter?

A)western blotting
B)in situ hybridization
C)pulse-chase assay
D)Southern blotting
E)DNA footprint protection assay

Question 14

If bacteria are infected with a bacteriophage and briefly exposed to radioactive uracil, what results would you expect to see immediately after exposure?

A)radioactive mRNA in the cytoplasm
B)radioactive mRNA in the nucleus
C)radioactive DNA in the cytoplasm
D)radioactive DNA in the nucleus
E)radioactive proteins in the nuclear membrane

Question 15

Nucleoli contain many tandem repeat copies of which genes, transcribed by RNA polymerase I?

A)mRNA
B)tRNA
C)rRNA
D)siRNA
E)all of the above

Question 16

Which of the following is part of a DNA molecule?

A)sigma
B)RNA polymerase
C)transcription factor
D)promoter
E)activator

Question 17

Which of the following statement(s)accurately describe(s)tRNA?

A)It carries amino acids to the ribosome.
B)It contains codons.
C)It is transcribed from a DNA template.
D)all of the above
E)A and C only

Question 18

How does the antibiotic rifampicin prevent transcription of RNA?

A)Rifampicin blocks binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter.
B)Rifampicin prevents chain elongation by preventing formation of the phosphodiester bond.
C)Rifampicin prevents the chain termination, so transcripts are too long and are rendered nonfunctional.
D)Rifampicin blocks ribosomal RNAs from forming functional ribosomes.
E)Rifampicin blocks translation by preventing the mRNA from being processed.

Question 19

What is the consensus sequence for the Pribnow box from these sequences?

A)TTGATA
B)TATGAT
C)TATTAT
D)ACCA
E)TAGTAT

Question 20

In a given bacterium, transcription of housekeeping genes is normal, but genes involved in nitrogen metabolism, stress, and chemotaxis are disrupted. Which sigma subunit is intact?

A)σ²⁸
B)σ³²
C)σ³⁵
D)σ⁵⁴
E)σ⁷⁰

Question 21

Transcription of inverted repeats produces an mRNA with complementary segments that fold to form what type of secondary structure?

Question 22

In humans, the 30S pre-RNA transcript yields three rRNA segments following transcription and RNA cleavage. What RNA transcripts are generated by the 30S pre-RNA transcript in
E. coli?

A)two rRNAs (15S each)
B)three rRNAs (5S, 16S, and 23S)
C)two tRNA transcripts
D)three rRNAs (5.8S, 18S, and 28S)and two tRNA transcripts
E)three rRNAs (5S, 16S, and 23S)and two tRNA transcripts

Question 23

Using the accompanying diagram, which of the following corresponds to the +1 nucleotide?

A)A
B)B
C)C
D)F
E)G

Question 24

What are the two chemical structures found in RNA but not DNA?

Question 25

What proteins are bound to enhancers, forming a protein "bridge" that bends the DNA over the promoter to initiate transcription?

Question 26

miRNA is capable of regulating protein production through which process?

Question 27

A cell exhibits specific defects in the alternative intron splicing pathway. The genes encoding which proteins are likely mutated in this cell?

A)histone proteins
B)transcription factors
C)transmembrane proteins
D)DNA binding proteins
E)SR proteins

Question 28

Which type of RNA interacts with nuclear proteins to form a ribonucleoprotein complex responsible for intron removal?

Question 29

Prokaryotes have a -10 and -35 consensus sequence in their promoter. What are the three eukaryotic promoter sequence elements (or "boxes")?

Question 30

What is the term for catalytically active RNAs that can activate processes such as self-splicing?

Question 31

You wish to prevent transcription of all three types of RNA in bacteria. How many different types of RNA polymerase would you need to inhibit?

Question 32

Name three functional RNAs unique to eukaryotes.

Question 33

A cell has a defect in polyadenylation. The RNA transcripts encoding which type of protein would not be affected by this defect because they are not polyadenylated?

A)histone proteins
B)transcription factors
C)transmembrane proteins
D)DNA binding proteins
E)SR proteins

Question 34

A plant cell exhibits defects in transcription of transfer RNA genes. The gene encoding which polymerase is likely to be mutated in this cell?

Question 35

What molecule is required for activation of a rho protein?

Question 36

Which enzyme is required to initiate 5′ capping of eukaryotic mRNA transcripts by removing the terminal phosphate group?

A)ribozyme
B)guanylyl transferase
C)methyl transferase
D)adenylyl cyclase
E)phosphodiesterase

Question 37

Eukaryotes have how many different RNA polymerases?

Question 38

What proteins aid in the recognition of the promoter sequence and binding of RNA polymerase II
in eukaryotes?

Question 39

Which three types of RNAs are found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

Question 40

What are the mechanisms for transcription termination in bacteria?

Question 41

In the following prokaryotic DNA sequence, label the highlighted regions. Using the prokaryotic DNA sequence above, describe the relationship between the highlighted regions and how mutations in each region may affect gene expression.

Question 42

The rat α-tropomyosin (α-Tm)gene produces nine different mature mRNA proteins from a single gene using which three "alternative" mechanisms?

Question 43

Intron self-splicing occurs when two ________ reactions excise the intron and allow exons to ligate.

Question 44

One type of RNA editing involves inserting uracils into edited mRNA with the assistance of which type of specialized RNA?

Question 45

Describe how band shift assays and DNA footprint protection assays can be used to identify promoter regions in DNA.

Question 46

Describe the mechanism(s)used by bacteria and eukaryotes for transcription termination.

Question 47

RNA polymerase is called a ________, meaning it is an intact complex with full enzymatic capacity.

Question 48

The 5S rRNA and tRNA genes have internal promoters, located downstream of the transcription start site, called ________.

Question 49

What are the three types of posttranscriptional processing, and what are the consequences of preventing each of these modifications in terms of gene expression?

Question 50

What proteins bind to silencer sequences, forming a protein "bridge" that bends the DNA over the promoter and prevents transcription?

Question 51

Describe the three main differences between bacterial and eukaryotic transcripts.

Question 52

Spliceosome components are recruited to 3′ and 5′ splice sites by SR proteins bound to what DNA sequences?

Question 53

In intrinsic termination, inverted repeat DNA sequences followed immediately by a string of ________ produce an mRNA stem-loop, followed by a string of ________.

Question 54

Processing of the 30S pre-RNA transcript in humans produces what three rRNAs after enzymatic cleavage?

Question 55

Polyadenylation begins with the binding of ________ near a six-nucleotide mRNA sequence, AAUAAA, downstream of the stop codon.