Deck 22: Dna Piology and Technology

Question 1

The denaturation of which enzyme would most directly interrupt the process of base pairing of nucleotides during DNA replication?

A) DNA polymerase
B) DNA ligase
C) DNA helicase
D) binding proteins
E) Okazaki fragments

Answer 1

A.

Question 2

List and explain the five steps involved in DNA replication.

Answer 2

1. The enzyme DNA helicase unwinds and unzips the DNA strand by breaking the hydrogen bonds between the base pairs.
2. New complementary DNA nucleotides are fit into place by the process of complementary base pairing. These are positioned and joined by the enzyme DNA polymerase.
3. DNA synthesis occurs in an antiparallel direction. The leading strand follows the helicase while the lagging strand results in short segments called Okazaki fragments.
4. The enzyme ligase seals any breaks or gaps in the DNA strand allowing DNA to return to its coiled state.
5. The result is two double-helix strands that are identical to each other.

Question 3

The "r" in "rRNA" stands for reticulum RNA because this type of RNA is associated with the endoplasmic reticulum.

Answer 3

False

Question 4

Which of the following is not a potential function of proteins?

A) enzymes to catalyze chemical reactions
B) neurotransmitters to aid the nervous system
C) antibodies for the immune system
D) storage form for genetic information
E) hormones to change cellular activity

Question 5

Which of the following is not true about the structure of DNA?

A) The sides of the ladder structure are made up of sugar and phosphate.
B) The bases form the "rungs" of the ladder structure.
C) The two strands are considered parallel.
D) The ladder structure is twisted into a double helix.
E) A always pairs with T and G always pairs with C.
B) The bases form the "rungs" of the ladder structure.
C)
C) The two strands are considered parallel.
D) The ladder structure is twisted into a double helix.

Question 6

What are the three things DNA must be able to do in order to serve as the genetic material?

Question 7

All of the RNAs

A) can be found in the ribosomes.
B) are translated into proteins.
C) are transcribed from DNA.
D) function within the nucleus.
E) interact with amino acids.

Question 8

How many different amino acids are found in proteins?

A) 5
B) 10
C) 20
D) 50
E) over 100

Question 9

What is the role of the enzyme ligase in DNA replication?

A) It unzips the double-stranded DNA.
B) It seals any breaks in the sugar-phosphate backbone.
C) It breaks the hydrogen bonds that hold the two strands of the DNA together.
D) It matches new bases to the old strand by complementary base pairing.
E) It folds the DNA into a coiled structure.

Question 10

DNA replication is considered

A) conservative.
B) semiconservative.
C) dispersive.
D) relaxed.
E) stringent.

Question 11

The sugar in DNA is deoxyribose while the sugar in RNA is ribose.

Question 12

Which of the following are found within the monomer unit of DNA?

A) phosphate, nitrogen bases
B) phosphate, amino acids
C) fatty acids, sugars
D) amino acids, nitrogen bases
E) nitrogen bases, fatty acid

Question 13

The bases in DNA are complementary. A always binds with

A) A.
B) C.
C) G.
D) T.
E) U.

Question 14

What is the name of the enzyme that fits new complementary DNA nucleotides into the new strand?

A) DNA polymerase
B) DNA helicase
C) DNA replicase
D) DNA ligase
E) DNA telomerase

Question 15

In what way are DNA and RNA similar?

A) Both contain C, A, and G.
B) Both contain deoxyribose.
C) Both contain U, C, and G.
D) Both are single stranded.
E) Both form a double helix.

Question 16

Which of the following is the monomer unit of DNA?

A) amino acids
B) fatty acids
C) nucleotides
D) carbohydrate rings
E) steroid rings

Question 17

Which of the following is a coding RNA?

A) small RNA
B) tRNA
C) rRNA
D) mRNA
E) large RNA

Question 18

Which of the following is not a type of small RNA?

A) snoRNAs
B) tRNA
C) snRNAs
D) miRNAs
E) siRNAs

Question 19

Both DNA and RNA are

A) found in the cytosol.
B) transcribed.
C) translated.
D) found in the nucleus.
E) considered the genetic material of the cell.

Question 20

Mitochondria also contain DNA.

Question 21

How many stop codons are there in the genetic code?

A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) five

Question 22

Exons in mRNAs are excised and left in the nucleus.

Question 23

The start codon for translation is

A) UAG.
B) UAA.
C) AAA.
D) AUG.
E) AGU.

Question 24

Describe the similarities and differences between DNA and RNA.

Question 25

Which of the following nucleotide sequences could give rise to the amino acid sequence alanine-aspartic acid- glycine? Assume that translation initiation has already occurred.

A) GUUAAGAGG
B) GCCGACGGC
C) CACCGCCGA
D) GAUGGUGCU
E) UUUUAAUGG

Question 26

As the RNA is being made, it is exported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm for translation.

Question 27

How many codons are there for leucine?

A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
E) six

Question 28

The three-base sequence in a mRNA molecule is called an)

A) codon.
B) anticodon.
C) initiator.
D) mutation.
E) transposon.

Question 29

In the RNA sequence CAAUGACCAG, what will be the first amino acid incorporated?

A) alanine
B) glutamine
C) methionine
D) valine
E) glycine

Question 30

Which of the following occurs during initiation of translation?

A) The ribosome moves down one codon so that the A site is available to receive an incoming tRNA.
B) The mRNA binds to the smaller of the two ribosomal subunits.
C) The polypeptide lengthens one amino acid at a time.
D) The ribosome dissociates into its two subunits and falls off the mRNA.
E) One of the three stop codons is reached.

Question 31

Which of the following is not a level of regulation of gene expression?

A) Pretranscriptional
B) Transcriptional
C) Posttranscriptional
D) Prereplicational
E) Translational

Question 32

Which of the following is not a type of mRNA processing?

A) adding a cap
B) cleaving off the methionine
C) adding a tail
D) removing the introns
E) splicing

Question 33

Which of the following is not an amino acid?

A) glycine
B) tryptophan
C) alanine
D) valine
E) uracil

Question 34

What enzyme is responsible for transcription formation of mRNA)?

A) helicase
B) DNA polymerase
C) RNA polymerase
D) ligase
E) protease

Question 35

Which of the following is not true regarding ribosomes?

A) They are composed of two subunits.
B) They contain both RNA and protein.
C) They contain an A site and a P site.
D) They translate RNA into protein.
E) They function within the nucleus.

Question 36

If the codon is CCA, what is the anticodon and what amino acid will be inserted?

A) CCA, proline
B) GGU, proline
C) GGT, glycine
D) ACC, threonine
E) UGG, tryptophan

Question 37

To transcribe something is to make an identical copy, i.e., if the original is DNA, the transcribed copy is also DNA.

Question 38

Which structure contains the anticodon?

A) the mRNA
B) the large ribosomal subunit
C) the small ribosomal subunit
D) the tRNA
E) the rRNA

Question 39

Transcribe and then translate the following DNA code: AATCGGTTCCATCGG

Question 40

When the sequence CGCAAUGCAAGGA is translated, the corresponding protein will be arginine-asparagine- alanine-arginine.

Question 41

When was the Human Genome Project completed?

A) 1999
B) 2001
C) 2003
D) 2005
E) 2010

Question 42

It only takes a matter of several hours to sequence 1,000 base-pair sections of DNA.

Question 43

Which of the following statements about PCR is not true?

A) PCR stands for "polymerizing copies of RNA."
B) PCR can create millions of copies of a segment of DNA in a test tube.
C) PCR uses DNA polymerase.
D) The amount of DNA doubles with each replication cycle.
E) The target is repeatedly replicated.

Question 44

Mouse models for human diseases, such as cystic fibrosis, have been created by recombinant DNA technology.

Question 45

Place the following steps for the cloning of a gene in order: 1. DNA ligase seals foreign DNA into a plasmid.
2) A restriction enzyme is used to cleave DNA.
3) The bacterium makes a product.
4) Some of the bacterial cells take up a recombinant plasmid.
5) The plasmid replicates on its own.

A) 2,1,4,5,3
B) 1,2,3,4,5
C) 3,1,2,4,5
D) 5,1,4,3,2
E) 1,3,2,4,5

Question 46

Which of the following would be an example of pretranscriptional control?

A) The chromosomes must decondense.
B) The mRNA is degraded before translation can occur.
C) The mRNA is processed before it leaves the nucleus.
D) The life expectancy of the mRNA molecules vary.
E) The polypeptide product is folded to form its functional conformation.

Question 47

An individual has a genetic disorder in which their cell is not forming the correct protein structure for the cell membrane to allow entry of a particular ion. Doctors have determined that in order to help cure this person, they need to alter the shape of the protein. Which type of regulation of gene expression would have the greatest chance of success?

A) posttranslational control
B) posttranscriptional control
C) transcriptional control
D) translational control
E) pretranscriptional control

Question 48

Which of the following is not true about transcription factors?

A) Transcription factors are DNA-binding proteins.
B) Transcription factors are considered external cell regulators.
C) There are many different types of transcription factors.
D) Specialization of cells is determined/influenced by which transcription factors are active in the cell.
E) Genes code for transcription factors.

Question 49

Which of the following is a benefit gained from learning how to sequence DNA?

A) identification of faulty genes
B) development of treatments for diseases
C) modification of crops to increase yields
D) understanding of our evolutionary history
E) all of these are benefits gained from DNA sequencing

Question 50

Which of the following is not a desirable trait commonly genetically engineered into plant?

A) disease resistant
B) salt sensitive
C) improved yield
D) modified wood pulp
E) drought tolerant

Question 51

Which of the following is a product made from bacteria via recombinant DNA technology that promotes plant health?

A) hepatitis B vaccine
B) insulin
C) clotting factor VIII
D) growth hormone
E) frost-minus substances

Question 52

How is the recombinant product procured from transgenic bacteria? Transgenic goats?

A) eat them; from the medium in which the bacteria are grown
B) from the medium in which the bacteria are grown; from the milk
C) eat them; eat them
D) from the milk; from the milk
E) from the medium in which the bacteria are grown; from the meat of the goat

Question 53

How does modern day sequencing detect dyes on the nucleotides?

A) radioactivity
B) dye terminator chemicals
C) DNA breakage
D) laser
E) by eye

Question 54

How much of your DNA is identical to the person who sits next to you in biology class?

A) 1%
B) 50%
C) 90%
D) 99%
E) 99.9%

Question 55

Which of the following is not involved in gene cloning?

A) host cell
B) vector
C) restriction enzyme
D) dyes attached to nucleotides
E) "sticky" ends

Question 56

More than 50% of the entire human genome codes for functional proteins.

Question 57

One of the disadvantages of PCR is that it requires large amounts of starting material.

Question 58

Organisms that have had a foreign gene inserted into them are called analytical products.

Question 59

How many genes did researchers think the human genome contained? How many did it contain?

A) 3 billion; 80,000
B) 1 million; 1 million
C) 25,000; 80,000
D) 80,000; 23,000
E) 125 million; 1 million

Question 60

Which of the following is not an application of PCR?

A) study of evolutionary history
B) study of mummies
C) investigation of crime scenes
D) treatment of cancer
E) detection of a genetic disorder

Question 61

Which of the following is the primary goal of bioinformatics?

A) to find significant patterns in the information gained from DNA sequencing and proteomics
B) to input DNA and protein sequences into a computer
C) to model the three-dimensional shape of cellular proteins
D) to obtain the sequence of all the noncoding regions of the DNA
E) to insert genetic material into human cells for the treatment of a disorder

Question 62

How similar are our genomes to those of a mouse?

A) 1%
B) 10%
C) 35%
D) 85%
E) 99%

Question 63

In ex vivo gene therapy, therapeutic DNA is injected into body cells with the use of a vector or carrier molecule.

Question 64

Which of the following is not studied in the field of proteomics?

A) protein-protein interactions
B) protein concentration in a cell
C) which genes give rise to which proteins
D) cellular location of particular proteins
E) chemical modifications of proteins

Question 65

The targeting of specific sequences in the DNA for removal or replacement is best described as

A) cloning.
B) genomics.
C) genome editing.
D) proteomics.
E) gene therapy.

Question 66

CRISPR was first discovered in fungi, where it acts as a form of immune defense against invading bacteria.

Question 67

Ex vivo gene therapy has been used to treat which of the following diseases?

A) SCID
B) cardiovascular disease
C) Huntington disease
D) endocrine disorder
E) all of these

Question 68

What is the goal of functional genomics?

A) to determine all of the human genome sequence
B) to determine the genome sequence of other organisms useful to humans
C) to determine the purpose of our genes and how they form a human being
D) to determine how all the proteins within the cell interact
E) to carry out gene therapy for human diseases

Question 69

In vivo gene therapy has been used to help patients suffering from cystic fibrosis.

Question 70

Researchers found three genes on chromosome 22 in chimpanzees that, when compared to our human genes, have given us insight into our evolution. What were those three genes?

A) genes for speech development, hearing, and smell
B) genes for chest size, cranial size, and leg length
C) genes for taste, opposable thumbs, and bipedalism
D) genes for speech development, opposable thumbs, and leg length
E) genes for food preference, bipedalism, and cranial size