Deck 48: Assisting in Microbiology and Immunology

Question 1

Diagnosis of a helminth infection requires a

A) stool sample for culture on differential media.
B) stool sample for O&P examination.
C) skin biopsy specimen for fluorescent testing.
D) blood sample for tissue culture.

Answer 1

stool sample for O&P examination.

Question 2

Most pathogenic organisms remain viable at temperatures of ____° C.

A) 37
B) 0
C) 25
D) All of the above

Answer 2

37

Question 3

An organism that is flexible as far as its oxygen requirements are concerned is called a(n)

A) aerobe.
B) anaerobe.
C) facultative aerobe.
D) facultative anaerobe.

Answer 3

facultative anaerobe.

Question 4

Microscopically, a sputum specimen containing positive AFB appears

A) pink.
B) blue.
C) purple.
D) green.

Question 5

___________ are tiny, gram-negative organisms transmitted by blood-sucking insects.

A) Rickettsiae
B) Chlamydiae
C) Herpes simplex organisms
D) Ascaris organisms

Question 6

Sensitivity testing is used to determine

A) the susceptibility of a microorganism to antiviral treatment.
B) the patient's susceptibility to a particular pathogen.
C) a pathogen's susceptibility to a particular antibiotic.
D) All of the above

Question 7

Beta hemolysis

A) is best detected on a sheep's blood medium.
B) is caused by hemolysis of blood cells.
C) refers to a clear zone around bacterial colonies growing on a sheep's blood medium.
D) All of the above

Question 8

Tightly coiled, spiral-shaped bacteria are called

A) spirilla.
B) sarcinae.
C) spirochetes.
D) streptobacilli.

Question 9

Which color indicates gram-positive bacteria?

A) Pink
B) Purple
C) Blue
D) Green

Question 10

Both bacteria and fungi can be

A) multicellular.
B) eukaryotes.
C) prokaryotes.
D) unicellular.

Question 11

The Gram reaction a bacterium exhibits is the result of its

A) cell membrane phospholipids.
B) cell wall peptidoglycan.
C) gelatinous capsule.
D) waxlike cell wall lipids.

Question 12

An anaerobic organism is most likely to be isolated from a(n)

A) abscess.
B) sputum.
C) skin scraping.
D) throat.

Question 13

An organism that is unlikely to be transmitted by sexual contact is

A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B) Treponema pallidum.
C) Chlamydia trachomatis.
D) Clostridium botulinum.

Question 14

In the scientific name Escherichia coli, the name coli indicates the

A) species.
B) genus.
C) shape.
D) B and C.

Question 15

Which of the following infections is caused by a fungus?

A) Pneumocystis pneumonia
B) Pyloric ulcers
C) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
D) Toxic shock syndrome

Question 16

Microscopically, a gram-negative bacterium appears as

A) purple spheres.
B) purple rods.
C) pink (red) spheres.
D) pink (red) rods.

Question 17

An organism that is unlikely to be transmitted by airborne droplets is

A) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
B) Legionella pneumophila.
C) Neisseria meningitidis.
D) Treponema pallidum.

Question 18

Which are not considered microorganisms?

A) Bacteria
B) Fungi
C) Helminths
D) Rickettsiae

Question 19

Cultures for which two organisms should not be refrigerated after collection?

A) Escherichia coli and Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Streptococcus pyogenes and N. gonorrhoeae
C) S. pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus

Question 20

The prefix staphylo- means that bacteria appear

A) in coiled springs.
B) rod shaped.
C) in grapelike clusters.
D) in pairs.

Question 21

Which of the following is true about gonorrhea?

A) Gram-negative cocci found in pairs
B) Gram-positive cocci in clusters
C) Gram-positive cocci in chains
D) Gram-negative spirilla

Question 22

Which of the following pathogenic organisms can be identified in sputum samples?

A) Pathogenic fungi
B) Pathogenic parasites
C) Pathogenic viruses
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above

Question 23

Which of the following will need a blood sample for diagnosis?

A) Salmonella
B) Tetanus
C) Legionnaires disease
D) Both B and C
E) All of the above

Question 24

The microbiology laboratory report for Mrs. Wallace's urine culture lists eight antibiotics, five of which are followed by the letter "S." This means that these antibiotics

A) should be avoided when treating the infection.
B) should be considered when treating the infection.
C) are likely to cause sensitivity or allergy in the patient.
D) should be retested with a more sensitive method.

Question 25

A urinary tract infection can be diagnosed if an organism isolated from a CCMS specimen is found in pure culture and is present in a quantity greater than ________ per milliliter of urine.

A) 10
B) 100
C) 10,000
D) 100,000

Question 26

The goal of maintaining the quality of a specimen is to make sure it remains _________.

Question 27

Which of the following tests is performed in the serology laboratory?

A) Direct immunologic urine pregnancy test
B) Indirect immunologic test
C) Strep test
D) Influenza test
E) Both C and D

Question 28

The rapid detection test that assists in the diagnosis of stomach ulcers detects

A) Clostridium perfringens.
B) Escherichia coli.
C) Helicobacter pylori.
D) Streptococcus pyogenes.

Question 29

When bacteria are found in grapelike clusters, which of the following prefixes is used?

A) Strepto-
B) Diplo-
C) Staphylo-
D) Tetrads
E) Sarcinae

Question 30

__________ are specific structures within a cell that perform a particular cellular function.

Question 31

When writing the name of a microorganism, which of the following rules applies to the genus?

A) Begins with a capital letter
B) Begins with a lowercase letter
C) May be represented by a single letter
D) Both A and C

Question 32

When stained with Gram's stain, gram-negative cells will stain

A) deep blue/violet.
B) pinkish-red.
C) do not stain well with Gram stain.
D) pink.

Question 33

Which of the following cfu results would indicate a UTI is likely?

A) <10,000 cfu/mL of urine
B) 10,000 to 100,000 cfu/mL of urine
C) 100,000 cfu/mL of urine
D) None of the above

Question 34

Which of the following pathogenic organisms are classified as eukaryotes?

A) Pathogenic fungi
B) Pathogenic protozoa
C) Helminths
D) All of the above

Question 35

In the Kirby-Bauer Antimicrobial Susceptibility Test, which of the following labels would indicate that the antibiotic is effective against the organism in that particular concentration in vitro?

A) S
B) R
C) I
D) None of the above

Question 36

Which of the following CLIA-waived serology tests can be performed by a medical assistant to detect antibodies to a specific pathogen?

A) Infectious mononucleosis
B) Helicobacter pylori
C) Lyme disease
D) HIV
E) All of the above

Question 37

A cellulose tape test for pinworms requires

A) a thin specimen of stool to be spread on cellulose tape to immobilize the worms.
B) a length of cellulose tape to be touched against the anal folds to collect worms.
C) temporarily taping the anus closed to trap the worms.
D) a microscope to view the eggs that have adhered to a length of cellulose tape.
E) B and D

Question 38

__________ are members of a class of invertebrate animals that includes insects, crustaceans, and arachnids.

Question 39

Protozoa often are identified with observation of __________, the microscopic capsule-like sacs that enclose them in the larval stage.

Question 40

Antimicrobial agents used to treat a broad range of infections are classified as ______________________.

Question 41

Tinea pedis is a fungal infection of the feet.

Question 42

A viral cell invades a host cell and uses its ______________, including carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins, to reproduce.

Question 43

The Epstein-Barr virus causes mononucleosis.

Question 44

Bacteria are classified as ___________ microbes, which are single-cell microbes that lack a membrane-bound nucleus.

Question 45

Explain the process of reporting infectious diseases in your state and identify at least six reportable diseases.

Question 46

A gram-positive cell has a thick layer of peptidoglycan with no lipid layer surrounding it.

Question 47

A nasopharyngeal swab is used to make the diagnosis of RSV.

Question 48

The term __________ refers to conditions outside a living body, such as bacteria grown on a culture plate.

Question 49

Specimens should be collected during the acute phase of an illness and 24 hours after antibiotics are prescribed.

Question 50

Negative rapid strep test results must be confirmed with a throat culture, because the rapid strep test is highly specific but not highly sensitive.

Question 51

Mycoplasmas have more PG in their cell walls than any other pathogen.

Question 52

Most pathogenic organisms prefer temperatures around 37° C and remain viable for up to 72 hours if held at room temperature or refrigerator temperature.

Question 53

Cultures for gonorrhea and strep throat should be kept at room temperature.

Question 54

When a urine culture is performed, suspicious colonies are subcultured onto an appropriate medium to isolate them in a(n) _____________.

Question 55

A chlamydia specimen must be transported to the laboratory on ice immediately after collection.

Question 56

Bacterial endospores allow a microorganism to survive harsh environments.

Question 57

Legionnaires' disease is caused by a gram-positive bacillus that causes a particular type of pneumonia.

Question 58

An influenza diagnosis is confirmed by cultures grown from nasopharyngeal swabs.

Question 59

Fungi are ___________ and are either single-cell or multicellular organisms with a nucleus that is membrane bound.

Question 60

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the organism that causes tuberculosis and also is an anaerobe.

Question 61

Malaria is diagnosed from a stained blood sample that is examined under the microscope for the protozoal parasite.

Question 62

The pathologist tests for Lyme disease by examining a blood sample for the infecting spirochetes.

Question 63

The physician would order a stool culture to confirm staphylococcal food poisoning.

Question 64

Tetanus is caused by a spore-forming, anaerobic bacillus that is most likely to be seen in deep wounds.

Question 65

A stool for O&P is used to diagnose both amebic dysentery and giardiasis.