Deck 4: Infectious Diseases

Question 1

Which condition is associated with scarlet fever?

A) Black hairy tongue
B) Median rhomboid glossitis
C) Scrofula
D) Strawberry tongue

Answer 1

Strawberry tongue

Question 2

Involvement and enlargement of the submandibular and cervical lymph nodes in tuberculosis is called

A) miliary tuberculosis.
B) lymphadenopathy.
C) scrofula.
D) angioedema.

Answer 2

scrofula.

Question 3

Acute osteomyelitis of the jaws may commonly result from which condition?

A) Extension of a periapical abscess
B) Surgery
C) Fracture of the jaw
D) Paget disease

Answer 3

Extension of a periapical abscess

Question 4

In primary syphilis, the oral lesion is termed

A) mucous patch.
B) chancre.
C) gumma.
D) ulcer.

Question 5

The gingivae shown are painful and erythematous. The interdental papillae appear as punched-out, necrotic, cratering areas. The overall sloughing of the necrotic tissue appears as a pseudomembrane over the tissues. The patient experiences a foul odor and metallic taste. On the basis of these features, which condition is suspected?

A) Acute marginal gingivitis
B) Primary herpes simplex infection
C) NUG
D) Pseudomembranous candidiasis

Question 6

Which statement is true concerning a positive reaction to the PPD skin test?

A) The patient has active tuberculosis.
B) The patient is contagious.
C) The patient has been infected previously with Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D) The patient is in need of hospitalization.

Question 7

Which disease is caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum?

A) Tuberculosis
B) Actinomycosis
C) Syphilis
D) Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG)

Question 8

Which antigen is injected into the skin to determine exposure and infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A) HLA-B27
B) PPD
C) VDRL
D) IgE

Question 9

Which is the name of the soft tissue flap that covers the distal-occlusal part of an incompletely erupted third molar?

A) Operculum
B) Gingival flap
C) Pericoronitis
D) Partial eruption flap

Question 10

Tonsillitis and pharyngitis are caused by group A $\beta$ -hemolytic streptococci. These conditions are significant because of their relationship to scarlet fever and rheumatic fever. Which condition may be related to heart valve damage?

A) Rheumatic fever
B) Strawberry tongue
C) Scarlet fever
D) Geographic tongue

Question 11

The most common site(s) for oral lesions in tuberculosis is(are) the

A) tongue and palate.
B) gingiva.
C) floor of the mouth and mucobuccal folds.
D) uvula and fauces.

Question 12

The most common type of candidiasis affecting the oral mucosa is __________________.

A) pseudomembranous
B) erythematous
C) chronic atrophic
D) chronic hyperplastic

Question 13

The most characteristic form of which disease is the formation of abscesses that tend to drain from the mandible to the skin by the formation of sinus tracts, with sulfur granules in the pus draining from the sinus tracts?

A) Actinomycosis
B) Tuberculosis
C) Syphilis
D) Impetigo

Question 14

Which condition does not occur in impetigo?

A) Itching
B) Pruritus
C) Regional lymphadenopathy
D) Fever

Question 15

Pericoronitis is most often associated with

A) maxillary canines.
B) mandibular third molars.
C) maxillary second molars.
D) mandibular first molars.

Question 16

Which condition does not contribute to the overgrowth of Candida albicans?

A) Antibiotic therapy
B) Dentures
C) Cancer chemotherapy
D) Angioedema

Question 17

Which statement is not true about syphilis?

A) Dark-field examination may be used to diagnose syphilitic lesions on the skin.
B) Syphilis is generally treated with penicillin.
C) The VDRL and fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS) tests are commonly used to confirm the diagnosis of syphilis.
D) The antibody titer increases if treatment has been successful.

Question 18

This lesion in the commissure is most likely caused by Candida albicans or a nutritional deficiency and is termed

A) pseudomembranous candidiasis.
B) angular cheilitis.
C) chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis.
D) chronic atrophic candidiasis.

Question 19

Candidiasis is the result of an overgrowth of a

A) yeastlike fungus.
B) spirochete.
C) filamentous bacterium.
D) fusiform bacillus.

Question 20

Which agent is used to treat impetigo?

A) Antiviral medications
B) Topical or systemic antibiotics
C) Corticosteroids
D) Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents

Question 21

Which does not occur as a manifestation of the immune deficiency caused by HIV infection?

A) Candidiasis
B) Hairy leukoplakia
C) Kaposi sarcoma
D) Bilateral parotid atrophy

Question 22

In herpes labialis, the amount of virus present is highest in the __________ stage.

A) crusted
B) prodromal
C) vesicle
D) healing

Question 23

In HIV infection, which test identifies the viral titer rather than circulating antibody?

A) VDRL
B) ELISA
C) Western blot
D) PCR

Question 24

Deep fungal infections include all except

A) histoplasmosis.
B) coccidioidomycosis.
C) blastomycosis.
D) actinomycosis.

Question 25

The lesions seen in this illustration are not commonly found in HIV-infected patients. Which is the likely diagnosis?

A) Candidiasis
B) Hairy leukoplakia
C) Herpes simplex
D) Heck disease

Question 26

The stage between the infection of an individual by a pathogen and the manifestation of the disease it causes is

A) opportunistic infection.
B) incubation period.
C) subclinical infection.
D) paresthesia.

Question 27

The most common form of recurrent herpes simplex infection is termed

A) herpes zoster.
B) herpetic whitlow.
C) herpes labialis.
D) type 2 herpes.

Question 28

Which type of medication is used for the treatment of herpes zoster?

A) Antibiotics
B) Antiviral medications
C) Supportive therapy only, no drug therapy
D) Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs

Question 29

Another name for verruca vulgaris is

A) condyloma acuminatum.
B) the common wart.
C) Heck disease.
D) focal epithelial hyperplasia.

Question 30

Verruca vulgaris closely resembles a papillary benign tumor of squamous epithelium termed

A) fibroma.
B) papilloma.
C) lipoma.
D) Heck disease.

Question 31

Which virus is associated with infectious mononucleosis?

A) Herpes simplex virus
B) HPV
C) Epstein-Barr virus
D) Varicella-zoster virus

Question 32

The initial infection and signs and symptoms of deep fungal infections, including histoplasmosis, coccidioidomycosis, and blastomycosis, are related to diseases in which location?

A) Lung
B) Kidney
C) Lymph nodes
D) Nasal cavity

Question 33

Herpangina is caused by which virus?

A) Herpes simplex virus
B) Epstein-Barr virus
C) Varicella-zoster virus
D) Coxsackievirus

Question 34

The image shows an oral condyloma acuminatum presenting in a child. The presence of condyloma acuminatum in a child suggests

A) hypersensitivity.
B) genetic predisposition.
C) sexual abuse.
D) autoimmune disease.

Question 35

The most reliable method of diagnosis for this condition of the tongue is the isolation of the Epstein-Barr virus. This condition is

A) white hairy tongue.
B) hairy leukoplakia.
C) mononucleosis.
D) Kaposi sarcoma.

Question 36

The intraoral lesion seen in patients with measles is termed

A) minor salivary gland swelling.
B) generalized painful gingivitis.
C) Koplik spots.
D) candidiasis.

Question 37

In testing for HIV infection, which antibody test is performed initially before the confirmatory Western blot test?

A) VDRL
B) ELISA (EIA)
C) FTA-ABS
D) CBC

Question 38

The varicella-zoster virus causes a highly contagious disease in children termed

A) shingles.
B) chickenpox.
C) mumps.
D) measles.

Question 39

Opportunistic infections can occur because the oral microflora is affected by changes such as a decrease in salivary flow, immune system alterations, or antibiotic administration.

A) Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and reason are correct but not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

Question 40

The patient is HIV seropositive. The most common intraoral locations for this lesion are the gingiva and palate. When diagnosed, this vascular lesion meets the criteria for the diagnosis of acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS). What is the name of the vascular lesion seen in this image?

A) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
B) Kaposi sarcoma
C) Thrombocytopenia
D) Hemangioma

Question 41

The lesions seen in this illustration most commonly appear in patients with HIV. What is the clinical diagnosis?

A) Candidiasis
B) Lymphoma
C) Kaposi sarcoma
D) Aphthous ulcer

Question 42

Histoplasmosis, coccidioidomycosis, blastomycosis, and cryptococcosis are examples of what type of infection?

A) Viral
B) Fungal
C) Developmental
D) Bacterial

Question 43

Why are newborn babies susceptible to an infection with Candida albicans?

A) Newborns are always susceptible to numerous infections.
B) The organism can cross the placenta.
C) Babies do not have a fully developed immune system.
D) The infection can be passed during breast-feeding.

Question 44

The type of cell of the immune system that HIV infects that is important in cell-mediated immunity and in regulating the immune response is which cell?

A) VDRL
B) CD4⁺ T-helper lymphocytes
C) Group A $\beta$ -hemolytic streptococci
D) Tzanck cells

Question 45

A vaccine is available to prevent which infection?

A) Herpes labialis
B) Epstein-Barr
C) Varicella-zoster
D) Coxsackievirus

Question 46

Which tooth is most often associated with pericoronitis?

A) #3
B) #15
C) #17
D) #30

Question 47

Which virus causes herpes zoster?

A) Herpes simplex virus
B) Epstein-Barr virus
C) Coxsackie virus
D) Varicella-zoster virus

Question 48

What is an oral manifestation of a patient with scarlet fever?

A) Strawberry tongue
B) Formation of draining abscesses
C) White, curdlike material present on the mucosa
D) Intraoral ulcers

Question 49

Tonsillitis and pharyngitis have a significant relationship with scarlet fever and rheumatic fever when caused by certain bacteria. What is the name of these bacteria?

A) Group A $\beta$ -hemolytic streptococci
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Actinomyces israelii
D) Treponema pallidum

Question 50

A PPD test has been administered to check if your patient has been exposed and infected with the Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection. The results of the skin test were positive. What is the next step?

A) Begin treatment immediately with isoniazid
B) Expose a chest radiograph
C) Send the patient to the physician for blood and urine samples
D) Confine the patient to bed for 7-10 days

Question 51

What are the most common intraoral sites for the development of a gumma?

A) Tongue and buccal mucosa
B) Tongue and palate
C) Palate and floor of the mouth
D) Floor of the mouth and labial mucosa

Question 52

The type of candidiasis that appears as a white lesion that does not wipe off and does not respond to antifungal therapy is

A) pseudomembranous.
B) erythematous.
C) chronic atrophic.
D) chronic hyperplastic.

Question 53

Which form of candidiasis is most asymptomatic?

A) Pseudomembranous
B) Erythematous
C) Chronic atrophic candidiasis
D) Angular cheilitis

Question 54

Each benign lesion is caused by the HPV except one. Which one is the exception?

A) Focal epithelial hyperplasia
B) Condyloma acuminatum
C) NUG
D) Verruca vulgaris

Question 55

The unilateral eruption of vesicles along the distribution of a sensory nerve seen in this adult patient is characteristic of

A) recurrent intraoral herpes simplex.
B) minor aphthous ulcers.
C) varicella-zoster or chickenpox.
D) herpes zoster or shingles.

Question 56

Focal epithelial hyperplasia, characterized by the presence of multiple whitish-to-pale pink nodules distributed throughout the oral mucosa, is termed

A) osteomyelitis.
B) lymphadenopathy.
C) Heck disease.
D) angioedema.

Question 57

Conditions associated with overgrowth of Candida albicans include the following except one. Which is the exception?

A) Denture wearer
B) Xerostomia
C) Diabetic patient
D) Patients with NUG

Question 58

What is a common route of infection for infectious mononucleosis?

A) Secretions from skin lesions
B) Saliva contact during kissing
C) Epidemics in children younger than age 5
D) Oral-genital contact

Question 59

An erythematous, often rhombus-shaped, flat-to-raised area on the midline of the posterior dorsal tongue describes

A) median rhomboid glossitis.
B) geographic tongue.
C) recurrent herpes simplex infection.
D) hairy leukoplakia.

Question 60

The vesicle cluster visible on the corner of this patient's vermilion border is also referred to as a cold sore or fever blister. The clinical diagnosis is

A) herpes labialis.
B) primary herpes.
C) aphthous ulcer.
D) herpetic whitlow.

Question 61

MATCHING
For each clinical appearance listed below, select the most closely linked disorder from the list provided.
Granulomatous lesions with primary infection to the lungs

A)Impetigo
B)Tuberculosis
C)Actinomycosis
D)Syphilis
E)Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
F)Verrucous vulgaris
G)Condyloma acuminatum

Question 62

For each disorder listed below, select the most closely linked clinical appearance from the list provided.
Hyperplastic lymphoid tissue of the soft palate or tonsillar pillars appears as yellowish or dark pink nodules

A)Herpangina
B)Measles
C)Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis
D)Hairy leukoplakia
E)Hand-foot-and-mouth disease
F)Mumps

Question 63

For each disorder listed below, select the most closely linked clinical appearance from the list provided.
Irregular corrugated white lesion most commonly occurring on the lateral border of the tongue

A)Herpangina
B)Measles
C)Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis
D)Hairy leukoplakia
E)Hand-foot-and-mouth disease
F)Mumps

Question 64

Intraoral lesions of Kaposi sarcoma are often found in which two sites?

A) Labial mucosa and interdental papilla
B) Gingiva and floor of the mouth
C) Palate and gingiva
D) Uvula and posterior 1/3 of the tongue

Question 65

MATCHING
For each clinical appearance listed below, select the most closely linked disorder from the list provided.
Vesicles or bullae, more often on skin of face and extremities

A)Impetigo
B)Tuberculosis
C)Actinomycosis
D)Syphilis
E)Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
F)Verrucous vulgaris
G)Condyloma acuminatum

Question 66

For each disorder listed below, select the most closely linked clinical appearance from the list provided.
Koplik spots in the oral cavity and skin rash that results from a paramyxovirus

A)Herpangina
B)Measles
C)Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis
D)Hairy leukoplakia
E)Hand-foot-and-mouth disease
F)Mumps

Question 67

Why is hairy leukoplakia a significant clinical finding in persons with HIV disease?

A) It is considered a predictor of the development of AIDS
B) Its presence suggests poor oral hygiene
C) Hairy leukoplakia may affect the function of the taste buds
D) It may represent a malignancy of the tongue

Question 68

MATCHING
For each clinical appearance listed below, select the most closely linked disorder from the list provided.
Pink, papillary lesion(s), more diffuse than papilloma

A)Impetigo
B)Tuberculosis
C)Actinomycosis
D)Syphilis
E)Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
F)Verrucous vulgaris
G)Condyloma acuminatum

Question 69

For each disorder listed below, select the most closely linked clinical appearance from the list provided.
Vesicles on the soft palate along with fever, malaise, sore throat, dysphagia, and erythematous pharyngitis

A)Herpangina
B)Measles
C)Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis
D)Hairy leukoplakia
E)Hand-foot-and-mouth disease
F)Mumps

Question 70

For each disorder listed below, select the most closely linked clinical appearance from the list provided.
Epidemic parotitis characterized by bilateral swelling of the parotid glands

A)Herpangina
B)Measles
C)Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis
D)Hairy leukoplakia
E)Hand-foot-and-mouth disease
F)Mumps

Question 71

The common characteristic features of linear gingival erythema seen in a person with HIV disease include the following except one. Which is the exception?

A) Punched-out papilla
B) A band-like erythema on the gingiva that does not respond to therapy
C) Spontaneous bleeding
D) Punctate lesions on the attached gingiva and alveolar mucosa

Question 72

MATCHING
For each clinical appearance listed below, select the most closely linked disorder from the list provided.
White, papillary exophytic lesion resembling a papilloma

A)Impetigo
B)Tuberculosis
C)Actinomycosis
D)Syphilis
E)Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
F)Verrucous vulgaris
G)Condyloma acuminatum

Question 73

MATCHING
For each clinical appearance listed below, select the most closely linked disorder from the list provided.
Multiple tiny vesicles that progress to form painful ulcers

A)Impetigo
B)Tuberculosis
C)Actinomycosis
D)Syphilis
E)Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
F)Verrucous vulgaris
G)Condyloma acuminatum

Question 74

MATCHING
For each clinical appearance listed below, select the most closely linked disorder from the list provided.
Draining abscesses, "sulfur granules"

A)Impetigo
B)Tuberculosis
C)Actinomycosis
D)Syphilis
E)Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
F)Verrucous vulgaris
G)Condyloma acuminatum

Question 75

MATCHING
For each clinical appearance listed below, select the most closely linked disorder from the list provided.
Primary (chancre), secondary (mucous patch), tertiary (gumma)

A)Impetigo
B)Tuberculosis
C)Actinomycosis
D)Syphilis
E)Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
F)Verrucous vulgaris
G)Condyloma acuminatum

Question 76

For each disorder listed below, select the most closely linked clinical appearance from the list provided.
Painful vesicles and ulcers that can occur anywhere in the mouth; present in epidemic form in children younger than 5 years

A)Herpangina
B)Measles
C)Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis
D)Hairy leukoplakia
E)Hand-foot-and-mouth disease
F)Mumps

Question 77

HIV infects cells of the immune system. What is the most important cell that HIV infects?

A) Neutrophil
B) Macrophage
C) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
D) CD4 T-helper lymphocyte