Deck 5: Physical Environment and Safety Standards

Question 1

Which of the following terms relates to the potential impact on personnel from the duties of the job description or the handling and use of equipment and supplies encountered within the perioperative environment?

A) aerobics
B) ergonomics
C) mnemonics
D) prosthetics

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Which type of procedure would require an operating table with a fluid drain pan attachment?

A) cardiac catheterization
B) coronary artery bypass
C) craniotomy
D) cystoscopy

Answer 2

D

Question 3

The emergency shut-off valve for the supply of oxygen into an operating room is designated by which color?

A) black
B) blue
C) green
D) red

Answer 3

C

Question 4

What is the electrical engineering safety device required for all operating room electrical outlets?

A) flip top cover
B) red-color designation
C) current converter
D) grounding system

Question 5

An erasable board is usually hung in the OR that is within easy viewing range of the surgical team to record:

A) sponge usage
B) sharps
C) instrument counts
D) all of the above

Question 6

An operating room where a surgical procedure is in progress would be considered what type of area?

A) biohazardous
B) decontamination
C) restricted
D) semirestricted

Question 7

Which characteristic of surgical overhead lights allows the surgeon to differentiate between the colors of arterial and venous blood or subtle color changes in tissues?

A) lightbulbs that give fluorescent light
B) lightbulbs that approximate sunlight
C) adjustable tracks for repositioning lights
D) spot focus with dark center to prevent glaring

Question 8

What is the term used for the process of cleaning an OR after one procedure and preparing for a subsequent one?

A) turnover
B) crossover
C) passover
D) changeover

Question 9

Which piece of OR furniture is usually the MOST proximal to the operative site?

A) back table
B) kick bucket
C) Mayo stand
D) ring stand

Question 10

The Wilson frame is used for positioning a patient in which of the following surgical positions?

A) lateral kidney
B) lithotomy
C) prone
D) sitting

Question 11

Which of the following components of personal protective equipment (PPE) are worn for procedures using fluoroscopy?

A) laser mask and laser goggles
B) arthroscopy boots and impervious apron
C) plastic face shield and N-95 respirator mask
D) lead apron and thyroid shield

Question 12

Which of the following national agencies is an arm of the CDC and functions under the U.S.Department of Health and Human Services to research and establish permissible exposure limits for chemical vapors and gases?

A) AAMI
B) ANSI
C) NIOSH
D) NFPA

Question 13

Frozen section biopsies are sent to which hospital department for analysis?

A) CT scan
B) nuclear medicine
C) pathology
D) sterile processing

Question 14

Which of the following is NOT a category of hazard for OR personnel or surgical patients?

A) biological
B) chemical
C) physical
D) physiological

Question 15

Where are surgical instrument "booms" mounted in an operating room?

A) ceiling
B) door
C) floor
D) wall

Question 16

All doors into a restricted area must remain closed during an operation to:

A) preserve negative air pressure
B) preserve positive air pressure
C) reduce air turbulence
D) none of the above

Question 17

Unless the patient is at risk of hypothermia, the temperature range in the OR should be between:

A) 55°F and 60°F
B) 63°F and 68°F
C) 68°F and 73°F
D) 75°F and 80°F

Question 18

Which type of ventilation system provides a supply of clean air and reduces contaminants and fumes from the OR?

A) negative, bidirectional
B) negative, unidirectional
C) positive, bidirectional
D) positive, unidirectional

Question 19

The visual representation of the components necessary to support a fire is which of the following geometric shapes?

A) circle
B) ellipse
C) square
D) triangle

Question 20

What are the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines for OR air exchanges per hour?

A) 10-15 with 20% fresh outside air
B) 10-15 with 90% filtered recirculated air
C) 20-25 with 20% fresh outside air
D) 20-25 with 90% filtered recirculated air

Question 21

Which type of natural immunoglobulins are responsible for the type I serious allergic reactions to rubber-containing items?

A) IgA
B) IgE
C) IgG
D) IgM

Question 22

The post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) was previously often referred to as:

A) holding
B) isolation
C) outpatient
D) recovery

Question 23

What is the acronym for the treatment administered to a surgical technologist within 2 hours following a needle stick during a procedure on a patient with HIV?

A) PASS
B) PEP
C) PPE
D) PMMA

Question 24

What term is used for the smoke that is generated by use of a laser or electrosurgical unit pencil on tissue?

A) emission
B) fog
C) plume
D) scatter

Question 25

What distance from the impact site of a laser beam on tissue should the smoke evacuator be positioned to capture 98% of the plume?

A) 1 cm
B) 2 cm
C) 5 cm
D) 10 cm

Question 26

Which of the following is a substance that is derived from tropical trees and that patients and health care workers may be highly allergic to?

A) chlorhexidine
B) iodine
C) latex
D) polyvinylchloride

Question 27

Which of the following would be least damaging to and most effective on a fire involving a laser generator or electrosurgical unit?

A) Class C halon extinguisher sprayed on unit
B) cotton blankets used to smother fire
C) sterile saline poured to douse fire
D) unplugging power cord to stop flow of electricity

Question 28

Equipment with the highest potential for serving as ignition sources in surgical fires include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) electrosurgical units
B) fiber-optic light cables
C) laser fibers or beams
D) phacoemulsification probes

Question 29

Which type of electricity is generated primarily by friction between two surfaces?

A) alternating
B) bipolar
C) direct
D) static

Question 30

A strategy to avoid intraoperative sharps injuries is to establish and use which type of a zone?

A) danger
B) exposure
C) free
D) neutral

Question 31

Which governmental agency mandates that operating rooms have a biohazard exposure control plan and make personal protective equipment available for personnel at risk?

A) EPA
B) FDA
C) NRC
D) OSHA

Question 32

The part of the complete ESU circuit that delivers alternating current back from exposed tissue to the ESU generator is the:

A) active electrode pencil
B) foot control pedal
C) patient return electrode (grounding pad)
D) third prong of the grounded plug

Question 33

Harvey Cushing, M.D., and William Bovie, Ph.D., collaborated in the 1926 to create the first:

A) anesthesia machine
B) electrosurgical unit
C) heart-lung machine
D) portable x-ray generator

Question 34

Effective surgical smoke evacuator units suction and filter particles as small as:

A) 0.1-0.5 µm
B) 1.0-5.0 µm
C) 0.1-0.5 mm
D) 1.0-5.0 mm

Question 35

Which of the following diagnostic studies emits ionizing radiation?

A) fluoroscopy
B) MRI scan
C) pulse oximetry
D) ultrasound

Question 36

All of the following are ways to reduce personnel radiological exposure EXCEPT:

A) amplification
B) distance
C) shielding
D) time

Question 37

What distance from the portable x-ray unit should sterile members of the surgical team stand to reduce their exposure while the image is being taken?

A) 1 foot
B) 2 feet
C) 4 feet
D) as far as possible

Question 38

What is the name of the system attached to all anesthesia machines to remove waste anesthesia gases?

A) scavenger
B) sequestering
C) shunting
D) suppression

Question 39

Which of the following is the large piece of OR furniture onto which most sterile supplies are opened and organized for use during a case?

A) back table
B) Mayo stand
C) prep table
D) ring stand

Question 40

What is the chemical name of the powder and liquid mixture used as bone cement for placement of prostheses?

A) cyanoacrylate
B) ethylene oxide
C) activated glutaraldehyde
D) polymethyl methacrylate

Question 41

Which of the following should be used by surgical team members to prevent potential injury from tasks involving heavy lifting, moving of equipment or patients, and long periods of standing or sitting?

A) permissible exposure limits
B) personal protective equipment
C) post-exposure prophylaxis
D) proper body mechanics

Question 42

According to the American Latex Allergy Association, what percentage of health care workers are allergic to latex?

A) 5-10%
B) 2-6%
C) 10-15%
D) 8-17%

Question 43

Soiled sponges from the operative field are discarded into low-to-the-floor, rolling, lined kick buckets.

Question 44

Match each term below with its description
a.CSPD
b.Anesthesia cart
c.Hypodermics
d.Suction outlets
e.Pre-op holding
f.Static electricity
g.Fluoroscopy
h.Substerile
i.Laminar flow
j.Laser
Area of an operating room suite adjacent to an OR, which may contain a scrub sink or immediate-use steam sterilizer

Question 45

Match each term below with its description
a.CSPD
b.Anesthesia cart
c.Hypodermics
d.Suction outlets
e.Pre-op holding
f.Static electricity
g.Fluoroscopy
h.Substerile
i.Laminar flow
j.Laser
Equipment used by CRNA or MD for induction, maintenance, monitoring, and reversal of a patient undergoing surgery

Question 46

Which of the following is the mnemonic used to remember the steps to take in the event of a surgical fire?

A) PASS
B) PMMA
C) RACE
D) RAST

Question 47

Which of the following organizations sets standards for electrical safety, sterilization, and use of medical devices?

A) AAMI
B) ANSI
C) CSPS
D) OSHA

Question 48

All of the following are articulating breakpoints or removable sections of an operating table EXCEPT:

A) head
B) knee
C) side
D) waist

Question 49

Locker rooms, administrative offices, and the departmental main desk are examples of semirestricted areas in the OR suite.

Question 50

What is the abbreviation for the sets of references that provide information about all potentially hazardous chemicals used in the perioperative setting and must be accessible to health care workers?

A) AAMI
B) MSDS
C) NIOSH
D) OSHA

Question 51

Polymethyl methacrylate is a gas used to sterilize heat-sensitive surgical instruments, but must be aerated from items before use on the patient.

Question 52

Which of the following is commonly used as a tissue fixative and preservative for surgical specimens sent to pathology?

A) ethylene oxide
B) formalin
C) glutaraldehyde
D) polymethyl methacrylate

Question 53

Match each term below with its description
a.CSPD
b.Anesthesia cart
c.Hypodermics
d.Suction outlets
e.Pre-op holding
f.Static electricity
g.Fluoroscopy
h.Substerile
i.Laminar flow
j.Laser
Connection points for negative pressure lines that allow for removal of irrigation and body fluids from the surgical site or by the anesthesia provider for management of patient secretions

Question 54

Match each term below with its description
a.CSPD
b.Anesthesia cart
c.Hypodermics
d.Suction outlets
e.Pre-op holding
f.Static electricity
g.Fluoroscopy
h.Substerile
i.Laminar flow
j.Laser
Positive pressure gradient that prevents airborne contaminants in the corridors from entering the OR when doors are opened

Question 55

Which of the following is NOT part of a three-prong plug?

A) active (hot) wire/prong
B) ground pin/prong
C) bipolar wire/prongs
D) inactive (neutral) wire/prong

Question 56

Which of the following is the type of head fixation device that attaches to the operating table used frequently for craniotomy procedures?

A) C-arm unit
B) lithotomy stirrups
C) Mayfield brace
D) Wilson frame

Question 57

Match each term below with its description
a.CSPD
b.Anesthesia cart
c.Hypodermics
d.Suction outlets
e.Pre-op holding
f.Static electricity
g.Fluoroscopy
h.Substerile
i.Laminar flow
j.Laser
Surgical energy that uses intense focused light beams and is an ignition source for surgical fires if proper precautions not taken

Question 58

Which of the following is the mnemonic used to remember the steps for operating a fire extinguisher?

A) PASS
B) PMMA
C) RACE
D) RAST

Question 59

Infectious, blood-saturated and dripping, regulated medical waste should be contained and discarded in red bags with a biohazard symbol.

Question 60

The physical design of an OR suite is designed to control personnel, patient, and supply traffic and may be of a race track, hotel, or specialty grouping type.

Question 61

Match each term below with its description
a.CSPD
b.Anesthesia cart
c.Hypodermics
d.Suction outlets
e.Pre-op holding
f.Static electricity
g.Fluoroscopy
h.Substerile
i.Laminar flow
j.Laser
Ignition source caused by friction between two surfaces and electron transfer; resulting in sparks or palpable shocks

Question 62

Match each term below with its description
a.CSPD
b.Anesthesia cart
c.Hypodermics
d.Suction outlets
e.Pre-op holding
f.Static electricity
g.Fluoroscopy
h.Substerile
i.Laminar flow
j.Laser
Category of "sharp" that has a beveled point and hollow cannula and either should not be recapped or should involve using the one-handed scoop method if recapping is necessary

Question 63

Match each term below with its description
a.CSPD
b.Anesthesia cart
c.Hypodermics
d.Suction outlets
e.Pre-op holding
f.Static electricity
g.Fluoroscopy
h.Substerile
i.Laminar flow
j.Laser
Area of an operating room suite where patients have IV lines started, sign consents, interview with surgeons, anesthesia providers, and nurses prior to transfer to the OR for procedures

Question 64

Match each term below with its description
a.CSPD
b.Anesthesia cart
c.Hypodermics
d.Suction outlets
e.Pre-op holding
f.Static electricity
g.Fluoroscopy
h.Substerile
i.Laminar flow
j.Laser
Real-time intraoperative radiography that emits large amounts of ionizing radiation and requires use of a C-arm image intensifier

Question 65

Match each term below with its description
a.CSPD
b.Anesthesia cart
c.Hypodermics
d.Suction outlets
e.Pre-op holding
f.Static electricity
g.Fluoroscopy
h.Substerile
i.Laminar flow
j.Laser
Separate department with direct or indirect connections to OR suite where instrument decontamination, assembly, and sterilization takes place and may include hospital materials storage