Deck 17: Immunization and Immune Testing

Question 1

Pathogens may be attenuated for use in vaccines by

A) raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells.
B) genetic manipulation.
C) treatment with formaldehyde.
D) genetic manipulation coupled with treatment with formaldehyde.
E) genetic manipulation and/or raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells.

Answer 1

E

Question 2

Which of the following statements regarding toxoids is FALSE?

A) They are produced against the toxin of the microorganism rather than the microorganism itself.
B) They provide lifelong immunity.
C) They stimulate antibody-mediated immune responses.
D) They have few antigenic determinants.
E) They are chemically or thermally modified.

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Which of the following statements regarding variolation is FALSE?

A) It involves grinding smallpox scabs.
B) It was administered to children as early as the 12th century.
C) It was risk free.
D) It reduced the incidence of smallpox.
E) At the time no one knew how it worked.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Which of the following statements regarding an inactivated vaccine is FALSE?

A) It can be produced with deactivated whole microorganisms.
B) It can be produced from antigenic fragments of a pathogen.
C) It is safer than an attenuated vaccine.
D) It is made from mutated forms of the pathogen.
E) It is made from pathogens that cannot replicate.

Question 5

An adjuvant is a substance that

A) increases the effective antigenicity of a pathogen.
B) delays the action of the vaccine.
C) is used to inactivate a microbe in a vaccine.
D) is used to decrease the inflammatory reaction to a vaccine.
E) is a piece of a microbe that is representative of the entire microorganism.

Question 6

OPV, the attenuated oral poliovirus vaccine, is no longer administered in the U.S.A. because

A) it is very toxic.
B) it does not provide good immunity.
C) it can revert to the wild-type strain.
D) it can cause severe anaphylaxis in some individuals.
E) the site of administration remains sore for many days after administration.

Question 7

A vaccine is currently available against which of the following microbes?

A) Ebola virus
B) HIV
C) the protozoan that causes malaria
D) poliovirus
E) the bacterium that causes leprosy

Question 8

Passive immunotherapy is used when

A) the attenuated live vaccine is too difficult to produce.
B) the pathogen does not produce a toxin.
C) the microorganism can be genetically manipulated.
D) protection against a recent infection or disease is needed immediately.
E) a representative antigen for the microbe cannot be isolated.

Question 9

Killed vaccines work by stimulating

A) the production of antibodies.
B) the action of Th1 cells.
C) the cell-mediated immune response.
D) cytotoxic T cells.
E) lymphocyte proliferation.

Question 10

he vaccine against smallpox developed by Edward Jenner is an example of a(n) __________ vaccine.

A) attenuated
B) whole inactivated
C) subunit
D) toxoid
E) combination.

Question 11

The discovery and use of __________ have greatly decreased the mortality and morbidity of infectious diseases.

A) chemotaxic substances
B) interferons
C) interleukins
D) antitoxoids
E) immunoglobulins

Question 12

Almost a century after Edward Jenner introduced successful vaccination, Louis Pasteur developed vaccine(s) against

A) anthrax.
B) human cholera.
C) rabies.
D) influenza.
E) anthrax and rabies.

Question 13

Hybridomas are produced by

A) combining two virus-infected cells.
B) fusing plasma cells with myeloma cells.
C) repeated culture of a pathogen until it loses its virulence.
D) combining a viral infected cell with a bacterial infected cell.
E) combining two bacterial infected cells.

Question 14

What type of vaccine is the hepatitis B vaccine?

A) inactivated whole pathogen
B) attenuated vaccine
C) toxoid vaccine
D) a vaccine composed of only a single antigen of the hepatitis virus
E) a vaccine produced by treating the virus with formaldehyde

Question 15

a person who has been exposed to rabies receives both HRIG (human rabies immunoglobulin) injected near the bite site and the rabies vaccine. What does this strategy represent?

A) active immunization
B) passive immunotherapy
C) viral hemagglutination inhibition
D) passive immunotherapy combined with viral hemagglutination inhibition
E) active immunization combined with passive immunotherapy

Question 16

What is the most efficient and cost-effective way to control infectious diseases?

A) variolation
B) active immunization by vaccination
C) passive immunotherapy using immunoglobulins
D) immune testing
E) autoimmunization

Question 17

Antivenin is

A) an antitoxin used to treat snakebites.
B) an antigen produced from a virus.
C) an antiserum produced from hybridomas.
D) a vaccine made toward the endotoxin of a virus.
E) a vaccine produced against the endotoxin of a bacterium.

Question 18

An infectious disease researcher isolates the pathogen responsible for an emerging disease. The microbe is grown in the lab for many generations. A preparation of the laboratory-grown microbe is treated with ionizing radiation and then tested for its potential as a vaccine. What type of vaccine is this?

A) attenuated vaccine
B) subunit vaccine
C) combination vaccine
D) toxoid vaccine
E) inactivated whole

Question 19

Variolation was first used

A) to immunize the Chinese against smallpox.
B) to protect individuals against the plague during the Middle Ages.
C) to spread smallpox throughout the Native American populations.
D) to treat individuals exposed to hepatitis.
E) for research purposes in the 20th century.

Question 20

Which of the following substances is commonly used to inactivate microbes?

A) formaldehyde
B) aluminum
C) mineral oil
D) saponin
E) aluminum phosphate

Question 21

Which of the following diagnostic procedures depends on precipitation of an antigen-antibody complex?

A) blood typing
B) immunodiffusion
C) viral hemagglutination inhibition tests used to diagnose viral infections
D) ELISA
E) fluorescent antibody tests

Question 22

The type of ELISA that is an indirect assay

A) detects the presence of a particular antibody.
B) involves an antigen "sandwiched" between two antibodies.
C) uses a fluorescent label.
D) relies on the presence of complement.
E) is used as a second verification test for HIV.

Question 23

Infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae can be detected in specimens by the

A) direct fluorescent antibody test.
B) indirect fluorescent antibody test.
C) hemagglutination test.
D) complement fixation test.
E) ELISA test.

Question 24

In precipitation tests, maximum precipitation takes place when

A) the amount of the antibody exceeds the amount of the antigen.
B) the amount of the antigen exceeds the amount of the antibody.
C) the amount of the antibody and the amount of the antigen are at optimal proportions.
D) a toxin is present.
E) a complex solution of many antibodies is used.

Question 25

A(n) __________ vaccine to prevent cervical cancer was recently developed.

A) attenuated
B) subunit
C) inactivated whole
D) recombinant
E) toxoid

Question 26

Titration is a serological procedure that

A) identifies the causative microbe of an infectious disease.
B) determines the amount of an antibody in the blood.
C) must be done before the western blot test to diagnose HIV.
D) is used for blood grouping.
E) has been replaced by genetic engineering in isolating the antigen of a pathogen.

Question 27

A(n) __________ vaccine is used in some parts of the world to reduce the spread of tuberculosis.

A) recombinant
B) toxoid
C) attenuated
D) inactivated whole
E) subunit

Question 28

The study and diagnosis of antigen-antibody interactions in the blood is known as

A) immunology.
B) hematology.
C) serology.
D) cytology.
E) histology.

Question 29

The vaccine to prevent tetanus is a(n) __________ vaccine.

A) attenuated
B) inactivated whole
C) recombinant
D) subunit
E) toxoid

Question 30

The complement fixation test uses red blood cells as the target for complement activation. Test serum containing antibodies is combined with a known amount of antigen in a tube, and then the RBCs and antibodies against the RBCs are added. A positive result for the complement fixation test would be

A) a line of precipitate near the bottom of the tube.
B) a cloudy solution in the tube.
C) loss of color in the tube.
D) a fluorescent precipitate.
E) a solution that is clear due to precipitation of RBCs.

Question 31

which of the following tests is most effective in determining whether someone has been infected with the H1N1 influenza virus?

A) a viral neutralization test
B) an immunodiffusion test
C) a viral hemagglutination test
D) an antibody titer test
E) a western blot

Question 32

Louis Pasteur developed a(n) __________ vaccine to prevent anthrax.

A) attenuated
B) inactivated whole
C) recombinant
D) subunit
E) toxoid

Question 33

Pneumococcal pneumonia can be prevented using a(n) __________ vaccine.

A) subunit
B) inactivated whole
C) attenuated
D) toxoid
E) recombinant

Question 34

Which of the following statements regarding ELISAs is true?

A) They are very labor intensive.
B) They require large amounts of serum.
C) The antibody label is a fluorescent molecule.
D) They can be used to detect antibody or antigen.
E) They involve the use of membrane filters.

Question 35

Which of the following tests is used to verify the presence of antibodies against the HIV virus?

A) the western blot test
B) the fluorescent antibody test
C) the complement fixation test
D) electrophoresis only
E) an antibody neutralization test

Question 36

A woman uses a home pregnancy test kit that tests for hCG hormone in urine. She knows this is a type of antibody assay from the kit brochure. Antibodies reacting with the hormone produce two lines on the test strip. What specific type of immunoassay does this represent?

A) an Ouchterlony test
B) a complement fixation test
C) an immunochromatographic assay
D) an ELISA
E) a neutralization assay

Question 37

Tuberculosis may be diagnosed using

A) a direct fluorescent antibody test.
B) complement fixation.
C) immunoelectrophoresis.
D) a western blot test.
E) a viral hemagglutination test.

Question 38

Which of the following is the technique used for detecting antibodies against multiple antigens in a complex mixture?

A) the western blot test
B) the ELISA
C) hemagglutination inhibition test
D) the direct fluorescent antibody test
E) the Ouchterlony test

Question 39

Viral neutralization testing is based on the fact that

A) antibodies can be produced against the toxin of a pathogen.
B) antibodies have different molecular weights.
C) viruses introduced into appropriate cell cultures have a cytopathic effect.
D) the gene for a pathogen's antigen can be isolated and introduced into a host cell by way of a plasmid.
E) antibodies to certain microbes can be given a fluorescent label.

Question 40

Scientists commonly use radial immunodiffusion testing to

A) diagnose infections by specific strains of viruses.
B) diagnose HIV.
C) measure the concentration of specific antibodies in a person's serum.
D) inactivate an endogenous bacterial toxin.
E) diagnose tuberculosis because the diameter of the wheel corresponds to the severity of the infection.

Question 41

Vaccines that contain attenuated microbes are also known as __________ live vaccines.

Question 42

The process of reducing the virulence of a microbe is known as attenuation.

Question 43

A(n) __________ assay is effective in verifying influenza infections.

A) direct fluorescent antibody
B) immunodiffusion precipitation
C) viral neutralization
D) viral hemagglutination inhibition
E) western blot

Question 44

Edward Jenner was the physician who first used cowpox to vaccinate individuals against smallpox.

Question 45

The "sandwich" ELISA is used to quantify the amount of antibody in a serum sample.

Question 46

Deliberate infection of young children with particles of ground smallpox scabs from children who had survived mild cases of smallpox was known as __________.

Question 47

Scientists commonly use radial immunodiffusion to measure the concentration of specific antibodies.

Question 48

Complement fixation is a more sensitive test than agglutination.

Question 49

When vaccines do not provide lifelong immunity, __________ must be given to maintain protection.

Question 50

The virulence of the rabies virus is increased by prolonged culture in rabbit spinal cells.

Question 51

Exposure to HIV can be verified using a(n) __________ assay.

A) direct fluorescent antibody
B) immunodiffusion precipitation
C) viral neutralization
D) viral hemagglutination inhibition
E) western blot

Question 52

Because attenuated live vaccines contain viruses that are less virulent, many booster vaccines must be given to produce an effective immune response.

Question 53

Rabies virus can be detected using a(n) __________ assay.

A) viral neutralization
B) direct fluorescent antibody
C) immunodiffusion precipitation
D) viral hemagglutination inhibition
E) western blot

Question 54

A(n) __________ assay is used to detect hantavirus.

A) western blot
B) viral hemagglutination inhibition
C) viral neutralization
D) immunodiffusion precipitation
E) direct fluorescent antibody

Question 55

Immunization with __________ vaccines results in primarily an antibody-mediated immune response.

Question 56

For some bacterial diseases such as tetanus, it is more effective to produce an immune response against the bacterial toxin than against the bacteria.

Question 57

Infection with the fungus Coccidioides immitis can be diagnosed using a(n) __________ assay.

A) immunodiffusion precipitation
B) western blot
C) direct fluorescent antibody
D) viral hemagglutination inhibition
E) viral neutralization

Question 58

The Ouchterlony test is a type of complement fixation test used to identify antibodies.

Question 59

In the body, phagocytic cells easily remove small immune complexes.

Question 60

Raising viruses for numerous generations can produce a(n) __________ form of the virus.

Question 61

Two types of vaccines for polio have been developed, an inactivated whole (Salk) and a live attenuated (Sabin) vaccine. Compare and contrast the advantages and disadvantages of the two polio vaccines.

Question 62

Chemically or thermally modified toxins that are used for vaccination are called __________.

Question 63

A research team identifies the microbe responsible for a new epidemic disease and determines that it is an intracellular parasite. They are able to find conditions under which it will grow in the laboratory. The team is now interested in developing a vaccine to prevent the disease. What type of vaccine is the best choice for providing protection from infection with this microbe? Defend your answer.

Question 64

The fusion of antibody-producing plasma cells with cancerous cells produces __________ that divide continuously.

Question 65

Materials that are added to a vaccine to increase the effective antigenicity are known as __________.

Question 66

The Ouchterlony test is a double __________ test.

Question 67

Discuss the similarities and differences between immunodiffusion and immunochromatographic assays.

Question 68

Antisera directed against toxins are known as __________.

Question 69

Snakebites are treated with __________.

Question 70

A microbe antigenically similar to human pathogen but incapable of causing disease in humans is a good candidate for use as a live __________ vaccine.

Question 71

How has modern technology helped to produce new types of vaccines?

Question 72

What is the best serological test to confirm infection with HIV? How is it performed?

Question 73

Modern vaccine technology can involve inserting the DNA encoding the pathogen's antigen(s) into a(n) __________ vector and injecting it into an individual.

Question 74

One way to measure the antibody levels in the blood is by __________ using agglutination tests.

Question 75

A(n) __________ assay uses antibodies bound on the surface of a membrane filter to detect antigens.