Deck 26: Musculoskeletal Disorders

Question 1

Which of the following describes a Colles' fracture?

A) The distal radius is broken.
B) The distal fibula is broken.
C) A vertebra appears crushed.
D) A spontaneous fracture occurs in weakened bone.

Answer 1

The distal radius is broken.

Question 2

Which of the following statements does NOT apply to osteoporosis?

A) Bone resorption is greater than bone formation.
B) It causes compression fractures of the vertebrae.
C) Osteoporosis is always a primary disorder.
D) It often leads to kyphosis and loss of height.

Answer 2

Osteoporosis is always a primary disorder.

Question 3

What is the prognosis for osteoarthritis?

A) The affected joints respond well to anti-inflammatory medication.
B) Additional joints will never be affected.
C) Damage is irreversible and usually progressive.
D) Any affected joint can be replaced with a prosthesis.

Answer 3

Damage is irreversible and usually progressive.

Question 4

The inflammation surrounding a fracture site during the first few days may complicate healing by causing:

A) excessive bone movement
B) severe ischemia and tissue necrosis
C) malunion or nonunion
D) fat emboli to form

Question 5

All of the following predispose to osteoporosis EXCEPT:

A) weight-bearing activity
B) a sedentary lifestyle
C) long-term intake of glucocorticoids
D) calcium deficit

Question 6

What limits joint movement in osteoarthritis?

A) the osteophytes and irregular cartilage surface
B) the wider joint space
C) decreased amount of synovial fluid in the cavity
D) fibrosis involving the joint capsule and ligaments

Question 7

Which of the following best describes the typical bone pain caused by osteogenic sarcoma?

A) intermittent,increasing with activity
B) sharp,increased with joint movement
C) mild,aching when weight-bearing
D) steady,severe,and persisting with rest

Question 8

What is a typical characteristic of the pain caused by osteoarthritis?

A) relief with moderate activity
B) quite severe in the early stages
C) aggravated by general muscle aching
D) increased with weight-bearing and activity

Question 9

What is the typical joint involvement with rheumatoid arthritis?

A) random single joints,progressing to involve other joints
B) bilateral small joints,symmetrical progression to other joints
C) abused or damaged joints first,then joints damaged by compensatory movement
D) progressive degeneration in selected joints

Question 10

Which of the following would identify an open or compound fracture?

A) The skin and soft tissue is exposed at the fracture site.
B) A bone is crushed into many small pieces.
C) The bone appears bent with a partial fracture line.
D) One end of a bone is forced into an adjacent bone.

Question 11

How is Duchenne's muscular dystrophy inherited?

A) an autosomal recessive gene
B) an X-linked recessive gene
C) an autosomal dominant gene
D) a codominant gene

Question 12

Which of the following is correct about Duchenne's muscular dystrophy?

A) There is difficulty climbing stairs or standing up at 2 to 3 years of age.
B) It involves only the legs and pelvis.
C) Skeletal muscle atrophy can be seen in the legs of a toddler.
D) It cannot be detected in any carriers.

Question 13

When a fracture is healing,the procallus or fibrocartilaginous callus:

A) can bear weight
B) serves as a splint across the fracture site
C) is the tissue to gradually be remodeled
D) is made up of new bone

Question 14

What is the chemical transmitter released at the neuromuscular junction?

A) norepinephrine
B) GABA
C) serotonin
D) acetylcholine

Question 15

What is the basic pathology of rheumatoid arthritis?

A) a degenerative disorder involving the small joints
B) a chronic inflammatory disorder affecting all joints
C) a systemic inflammatory disorder due to an autoimmune reaction
D) an inflammatory disorder causing damage to many organs

Question 16

What is a sign of a dislocation?

A) crepitus
B) pain and tenderness
C) increased range of motion at a joint
D) deformity at a joint

Question 17

During the fracture healing process,the hematoma:

A) is broken down and absorbed immediately
B) provides the base for bone cells to produce new bone
C) is the structure into which granulation tissue grows
D) produces fibroblasts to lay down new cartilage

Question 18

Which of the following cells produce new bone?

A) osteocytes
B) osteoblasts
C) osteoclasts
D) stem cells from the bone marrow

Question 19

What structure facilitates joint movement?

A) synovial membrane
B) fibrous capsule
C) articulating cartilage
D) menisci

Question 20

Which of the following is characteristic of osteoarthritis?

A) Inflammation and fibrosis develop at the joints.
B) Degeneration of articulating cartilage occurs in the large joints.
C) It progresses bilaterally through the small joints.
D) There are no changes in the bone at the affected joints.

Question 21

Therapeutic measures for osteoporosis include:

A) non-weight-bearing exercises
B) dietary supplements of calcium and vitamin D
C) transplants of osteoblasts
D) avoidance of all hormones

Question 22

Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis differs from the adult form in that:

A) Only small joints are affected.
B) Rheumatoid factor is not present in JRA,but systemic effects are more severe.
C) Onset is more insidious in JRA.
D) Deformity and loss of function occur in most children with JRA.

Question 23

How does the joint appear during an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis?

A) relatively normal
B) enlarged,firm,crepitus with movement
C) deformed,pale and nodular
D) red,warm,swollen,and tender to touch

Question 24

Ewing's sarcoma metastasizes at an early stage to the:

A) brain
B) liver
C) lungs
D) other bones

Question 25

What is a common outcome of fibrosis,calcification,and fusion of the spine in ankylosing spondylitis?

A) damage to the spinal nerves and loss of function
B) paraplegia
C) impaired heart and lung function
D) rigidity,postural changes,and osteoporosis

Question 26

Bones classified as "irregular" would include:

A) skull bones
B) the mandible
C) wrist bones
D) the femur

Question 27

What is the distinguishing feature of primary fibromyalgia syndrome?

A) joint pain and stiffness throughout the body
B) degeneration and atrophy of skeletal muscles in back and lower limbs
C) localized areas of constant pain
D) specific trigger points for pain and tenderness

Question 28

Which of the following distinguishes septic arthritis?

A) multiple joints that are swollen,red,and painful at one time
B) presence of mild fever,fatigue,and leukocytosis
C) purulent synovial fluid present in a single,swollen joint
D) presence of many antibodies in the blood

Question 29

Which statement applies to menisci?

A) They are found in the hip joints.
B) They are secretory membranes in joints.
C) They prevent excessive movement of joints.
D) They are found in the shoulder joint.

Question 30

Where does inflammation usually begin in an individual with ankylosing spondylitis?

A) costovertebral joints and progression down the spine
B) cervical and thoracic vertebrae,causing kyphosis
C) sacroiliac joints and progression up the spine
D) peripheral joints and then proceeds to the vertebrae

Question 31

Why does ankylosis and deformity develop in rheumatoid arthritis?

A) skeletal muscle hypertrophies
B) fibrosis occurs in the joint
C) replacement cartilage changes alignment
D) ligaments and tendons shorten

Question 32

Systemic effects of rheumatoid arthritis are manifested as:

A) nodules in various tissues,severe fatigue,and anorexia
B) headache,leukopenia,high fever
C) swelling and dysfunction in many organs
D) progressive damage to a joint

Question 33

What is the likely immediate result of fat emboli from a broken femur?

A) additional ischemia in the broken bone
B) nonunion or malunion of the fracture
C) pulmonary inflammation and obstruction
D) abscess and infection at a distant site

Question 34

How is the articular cartilage damaged in rheumatoid arthritis?

A) enzymatic destruction by the pannus
B) inflamed synovial membrane covers the cartilage
C) fibrous tissue connects the ends of the bones
D) blood supply to the cartilage is lost

Question 35

What is a common effect of long-term use of glucocorticoids to treat rheumatoid arthritis?

A) leukocytosis
B) osteoporosis
C) severe anemia
D) orthostatic hypotension

Question 36

Which statement defines a sprain? A tear in a ___________:

A) ligament
B) tendon
C) skeletal muscle
D) meniscus

Question 37

Immovable joints are called:

A) amphiarthroses
B) synarthroses
C) diarthroses
D) synovial joints

Question 38

Which of the following may precipitate an attack of gout?

A) a sudden increase in serum uric acid levels
B) severe hypercalcemia
C) mild trauma to the toes
D) development of a tophus