A 60-year-old male presents with GI bleeding and abdominal pain.He reports that he takes NSAIDs daily to prevent heart attack.Tests reveal that he has a peptic ulcer.The most likely cause of this disease is:
A) Increasing subepithelial bicarbonate production
B) Accelerating the H+ (proton) pump in parietal cells
C) Inhibiting mucosal prostaglandin synthesis
D) Stimulating a shunt of mucosal blood flow
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q14: A 34-year-old male was diagnosed with a
Q15: Chronic gastritis is classified according to the:
A)
Q16: A 42-year-old female presents with abdominal discomfort,epigastric
Q17: A 24-year-old male who sustained a head
Q18: A 39-year-old female with chronic intermittent pain
Q20: A 52-year-old presents with bleeding from the
Q21: A 55-year-old male died in a motor
Q22: The most common cause of chronic vascular
Q23: Complete obstruction of bile flow to the
Q24: A 3-month-old female develops colicky pain,abdominal distention,and
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents