An 82-year-old woman is sent to the hospital from a nursing home after 2 days of fever, confusion, and lethargy. The patient has a history of mild dementia, hypertension, and osteoarthritis. Her temperature is 38.8 C (102 F) , blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, and pulse is 116/min. She has mild suprapubic and right costovertebral angle tenderness. Her leukocyte count is 18,000/mm3, and urinalysis is consistent with acute cystitis. A femoral venous access is planned for administration of intravenous fluids and antibiotics. The femoral artery pulsation is palpable immediately below the inguinal ligament. Which of the following describes the optimal cannulation site for the femoral vein?
A) Immediately lateral to the femoral artery
B) Immediately medial to the femoral artery
C) Midway between the iliac crest and the femoral artery
D) Superior and medial to the pubic tubercle
E) Superior to the inguinal ligament
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q8: A 54-year-old man comes to the physician
Q9: A 65-year-old man with a history of
Q10: A 78-year-old woman is hospitalized due to
Q11: A 66-year-old man comes to the hospital
Q12: A 51-year-old man is brought to the
Q14: A 62-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q15: A 55-year-old man is brought to the
Q16: A 70-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q17: A 53-year-old man is hospitalized due to
Q18: A 35-year-old woman comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents