An 18-year-old man comes to the clinic due to hematuria and intermittent left flank pain of several months duration. He has no history of trauma or sexually transmitted diseases and no associated fever or dysuria. Examination reveals a soft abdomen with normal bowel sounds and no localized tenderness. Urinalysis confirms 3+ blood but no white blood cells, crystals, or organisms. Contrast-enhanced CT scan shows no abnormalities in the ureters or kidneys but does reveal compression of the left renal vein between the superior mesenteric artery and the aorta. Which of the following is most likely to develop due to the vascular abnormality seen in this patient?
A) Esophageal varices
B) Left-sided ankle swelling
C) Periumbilical venous distension
D) Rectal varices
E) Varicocele
Correct Answer:
Verified
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