A 15-year-old girl comes to the office due to pelvic and crampy lower abdominal pain that seems to recur at the beginning of each month and resolves after a day or two. The pain began approximately 6 months ago and has significantly worsened each month. The patient has never had a menstrual period. She has never had sexual intercourse. Weight, height, and BMI are average for age and sex. Breast and pubic hair development are at sexual maturity rating (Tanner stage) 5. Digital rectal examination reveals a palpable mass anterior to the rectum. A pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Androgen insensitivity syndrome
B) Asherman syndrome
C) Endometriosis
D) Imperforate hymen
E) Kallmann syndrome
Correct Answer:
Verified
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