A 63-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of chronic constipation. For the past 8 months, the patient has had increased straining with bowel movements but no abdominal pain or rectal bleeding. She has 2 children, both delivered via forceps-assisted vaginal delivery. BMI is 31 kg/m2. On digital rectal examination, there are no masses and rectal tone is normal; pelvic examination shows a visible bulge into the vagina with straining. Sensation around the perineum is intact. Fecal occult blood testing is negative. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A) Absence of colonic intramural ganglion cells
B) Colonic sensitivity with chronic irregular contractions
C) Damage to the levator ani muscle complex
D) Defect in the external anal sphincter
E) Increased internal anal sphincter parasympathetic tone
Correct Answer:
Verified
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