A 21-year-old previously healthy man comes to the emergency department with acute onset of severe left scrotal pain and nausea. The pain started after he returned home from the gym following an intense workout. He denies any trauma, fever, or dysuria. Examination shows a swollen and tender left testis that lies higher than the right testis. Doppler ultrasound shows decreased arterial blood flow in the left spermatic cord entering the testis. Which of the following is the likely origin of the artery involved in this patient's condition?
A) Abdominal aorta
B) External iliac artery
C) Internal iliac artery
D) Internal pudendal artery
E) Obturator artery
F) Renal artery
Correct Answer:
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