A 32-year-old woman comes to the office due to a 2-day history of worsening headache and double vision. The patient reports no chronic medical conditions but has had nasal discharge for the past several days. Physical examination shows weakness of the muscle shown on the below CT scan:
Purulent discharge from the sphenoethmoidal recess of the nasal cavity is also noted. Involvement of which of the following nerves best explains this patient's ocular findings?
A) Optic nerve
B) Oculomotor nerve
C) Trochlear nerve
D) Ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve
E) Abducens nerve
Correct Answer:
Verified
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