A 28-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, is seen in the clinic a week after spontaneous vaginal delivery. The delivery was performed under epidural analgesia and complicated by a prolonged second stage of labor. Since delivery, the patient has had frequent episodes of fecal incontinence, as well as mild perineal pain that is relieved by ibuprofen and opioid analgesics. She reports no other medical conditions, and her pregnancy was otherwise uncomplicated. On examination, a healing perineal laceration shows no signs of infection. Digital anorectal examination reveals decreased anal sphincter tone and loss of the anal wink reflex. Bilateral lower extremity reflexes are 2+ with normal tone. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's fecal incontinence?
A) Cauda equina syndrome
B) Lumbosacral plexopathy
C) Opioid medication side effect
D) Pudendal nerve injury
E) Spinal epidural hematoma
Correct Answer:
Verified
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