A 58-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to a 3-hour history of abrupt-onset weakness and numbness of the right lower extremity, as well as urinary incontinence. Two months ago, the patient was hospitalized due to left-sided weakness that resolved spontaneously after several hours. At that time, MRI of the head and MR angiography of the head and neck were normal, but the patient was found to have atrial fibrillation. An oral anticoagulant was prescribed at discharge, but the patient has been nonadherent with therapy. Blood pressure is 162/94 mm Hg and pulse is 102/min and irregularly irregular. Physical examination shows weakness and sensory loss in the right lower extremity. Babinski sign is present on the right. Speech is normal, and there is no facial weakness. Examination of the right upper extremity and the left extremities is unremarkable. An embolic occlusion affecting which of the following vascular regions is the most likely cause of this patient's current symptoms?
A) Anterior cerebral artery distal to the origin of the anterior communicating artery
B) Anterior cerebral artery proximal to the origin of the anterior communicating artery
C) Inferior division of the middle cerebral artery
D) Superior division of the middle cerebral artery
E) Trunk of the middle cerebral artery before the bifurcation
Correct Answer:
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