A 26-year-old woman is evaluated in the clinic due to absence of her last 3 menstrual periods. The patient has also developed bilateral milky nipple discharge. Menarche was at age 13. Until now, she has had regular menses, lasting 4-5 days, every 28 days. The patient says she takes acetaminophen for occasional headaches and a medication that "stops the voices" in her head. BMI is 29 kg/m2. Pelvic examination is unremarkable. Urine β-hCG testing is negative. Interruption of which of the following central nervous system pathways is the most likely cause of this patient's presenting symptoms?
A) Arcuate fasciculus
B) Hypothalamospinal tract
C) Lateral medullary spinothalamic tract
D) Mesolimbic pathway
E) Nigrostriatal pathway
F) Tuberoinfundibular pathway
Correct Answer:
Verified
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