A 19-year-old woman comes to the office to discuss treatment options for seasonal sneezing, rhinorrhea, and nasal congestion. She has had these symptoms for the past few springs and summers but is now willing to "try anything" to allow her to concentrate on her upcoming final exams. The patient has no significant medical history, takes no medications, and has no drug allergies. Vital signs are within normal limits and physical examination reveals mild bilateral pale and boggy nasal turbinates with copious clear mucus. Fluticasone, an intranasal glucocorticoid, is prescribed. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of action of this drug?
A) Apoptosis of tissue eosinophils
B) Antagonism of leukotriene receptors
C) Binding and removal of circulating IgE
D) Reduced differentiation of regulatory T cells (Treg)
Correct Answer:
Verified
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