A 38-year-old woman comes to the office due to abdominal pain. For the last 2-3 weeks, she has had increasingly severe abdominal pain associated with watery diarrhea. The patient has a history of Crohn disease treated for the last year with adalimumab, which has controlled the symptoms until now. Vital signs are normal except for a temperature of 37.8 C (100 F) . Examination shows moderate tenderness in the right lower quadrant with no peritoneal signs. Laboratory results show an undetectable trough adalimumab level. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's worsening symptoms?
A) Development of antidrug antibodies
B) Formation of insoluble complexes at the injection site
C) Increased enterohepatic drug recirculation
D) Increased renal drug elimination
E) Induction of cytochrome P-450 enzymes
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q119: A 58-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q120: A 7-year-old boy is evaluated for a
Q121: A 22-year-old woman comes to the office
Q122: A 7-year-old boy is brought to the
Q123: A 2-month-old girl is brought to the
Q124: A 2-year-old boy is brought to the
Q126: A 28-year-old man comes to the office
Q127: A 45-year-old woman comes to the office
Q128: A 7-year-old boy is brought to the
Q129: A 44-year-old man with a chronic cough
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents