A 32-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, comes to the office for vaginal discharge. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and takes no daily medications. Her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. The patient has recently become sexually active with a new partner and uses an intrauterine device for contraception. Cytology of the discharge is shown in the image below:
Which of the following best describes the predominant organism causing this patient's condition?
A) Anaerobic gram-variable rod
B) Diploid fungus
C) Gram-negative diplococcus
D) Intracellular gram-negative bacterium
E) Motile protozoan
F) Naked DNA virus
Correct Answer:
Verified
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