A 24-year-old woman comes to the office due to spotting after vaginal intercourse. She also has some yellow vaginal discharge and dysuria but no pelvic pain or cramping. The patient has taken combination oral contraceptives for the past 3 years and has had no menses for the past year. Her mother was diagnosed with cervical cancer at age 47. BMI is 35 kg/m2. Vital signs are normal. On examination, the abdomen is soft and nontender. Speculum examination reveals purulent discharge from the cervical os, and the cervix is friable. On bimanual examination, there is no cervical motion tenderness, and the adnexa are nontender bilaterally. Urine pregnancy testing is negative. Microscopy of the discharge shows abundant neutrophils. If left untreated, this patient's condition could lead to which of the following complications?
A) Accelerated ovarian follicle depletion
B) Cervical cancer
C) Cervical insufficiency
D) Endometrial hyperplasia
E) Recurrent urinary tract infection
F) Tubal factor infertility
Correct Answer:
Verified
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