A 24-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, comes to the office for postpartum follow-up 2 weeks after a term vaginal delivery. Her baby is doing well, but she is concerned because she has not yet lactated. The patient knew she would lose weight and be tired after the baby was born, but she feels excessive fatigue and has had significant weight loss. She also has nausea, loss of appetite, and postural dizziness. The patient has no headaches, visual problems, cold intolerance, constipation, or polyuria. On examination, she appears fatigued and has mild pallor. Laboratory tests are drawn the next morning at 8:00 AM, with the following results:
Which of the following pathologic processes is most likely responsible for this patient's symptoms?
A) Glandular hemorrhage
B) Inflammation
C) Ischemic necrosis
D) Malignant infiltration
E) Non-malignant infiltration
Correct Answer:
Verified
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