A 46-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to sudden-onset, severe occipital headache and nausea. The patient has a history of hypertension and cigarette smoking. Physical examination shows mild disorientation but no focal weakness, sensory loss, or cranial nerve abnormalities. Noncontrast CT scan of the head reveals diffuse hyperdensity in the subarachnoid space. CT angiography reveals a ruptured anterior communicating artery aneurysm. The patient undergoes endovascular coiling of the aneurysm. Four days later, there is sudden deterioration in her level of consciousness and new, right-sided hemiparesis is observed. Repeat CT scan shows no significant changes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's neurological deterioration?
A) Arterial thrombosis
B) Embolism
C) Hydrocephalus
D) Rebleeding
E) Vascular inflammation
F) Vasospasm
Correct Answer:
Verified
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