A 33-year-old woman comes to a fertility clinic for evaluation. The patient has been attempting to conceive for a year. She has been monogamous for 5 years with a male partner and he has had a semen analysis with adequate sperm motility, volume, and count. The patient used oral contraceptives for 15 years but stopped a year ago. Since then, her menses have occurred every 27-31 days with 4-6 days of bleeding. Seven years ago, she was treated with ceftriaxone after presenting to the emergency department with fever, abdominal pain, and vaginal discharge. Which of the following is the most likely factor contributing to this patient's infertility?
A) Advanced maternal age
B) Chronic ovulatory dysfunction
C) Inadequate time for attempted conception
D) Long-term oral contraceptive use
E) Prior incomplete antibiotic coverage
Correct Answer:
Verified
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