A 49-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department with squeezing chest pain and profuse sweating for the last 2 hours. Medical history includes diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. ECG reveals ST-segment elevation in leads I, aVL, and V1-V4. The patient is immediately taken to the cardiac catheterization laboratory, where she is found to have complete occlusion of the left anterior descending coronary artery. The blockage is opened with percutaneous coronary intervention with stenting, but afterward she experiences recurrent and sustained episodes of ventricular arrhythmia. She is treated with an antiarrhythmic agent that preferentially binds to rapidly depolarizing and ischemic ventricular myocardial fibers and has minimal effect on normal ventricular myocardium. Which of the following agents was most likely used in this patient?
A) Adenosine
B) Digoxin
C) Diltiazem
D) Ibutilide
E) Lidocaine
F) Metoprolol
G) Procainamide
Correct Answer:
Verified
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