A 57-year-old woman comes to the office due to left breast pain associated with fatigue, nausea, and unexplained weight loss. She is referred for mammography, which reveals a 3-cm dominant mass in the left breast. Biopsy confirms the mass to be adenocarcinoma, and subsequent studies find that the tumor is estrogen receptor-positive and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2- (HER2) negative. The patient experienced menopause at age 52, and her past medical history is otherwise unremarkable. Anastrozole treatment is initiated and leads to a substantial decrease in the size of the primary tumor. Which of the following is the best explanation for the therapeutic effect of this agent?
A) Decreased androgen aromatization
B) Decreased androgen synthesis
C) Decreased follicular cell stimulation
D) Impaired ligand-receptor interaction
E) Impaired second-messenger action
Correct Answer:
Verified
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