A 51-year-old woman comes to the office for a follow-up visit. Three weeks ago, she had a screening mammogram that was suspicious for malignancy. An ultrasound-guided needle aspiration was performed and showed invasive ductal carcinoma. The patient underwent a lumpectomy with axillary dissection and was found to have no metastatic disease. Immunohistochemical analysis of the tumor specimen was significant for the following:
Adjuvant therapy with a monoclonal antibody is started. Which of the following is the most likely target of this drug?
A) Estrogen receptor
B) Peripheral aromatase enzyme
C) Receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa-B ligand
D) Tyrosine kinase receptor
E) Vascular endothelial growth factor
Correct Answer:
Verified
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