A 48-year-old woman comes to the office due to lower extremity discomfort. The patient reports no pain but describes an uncomfortable sensation in her legs, particularly in the evening and at night. The symptoms are relieved by leg movements or walking. She reports no behavioral or mood changes. The patient intermittently experiences mild migraines, and during a recent episode, antiemetic therapy worsened the leg discomfort. She has no other medical conditions and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Vital signs are within normal limits, and physical examination shows no abnormalities. Blood cell counts, serum chemistry studies, and serum iron levels are within normal limits. Pharmacotherapy with which of the following mechanisms of action is most likely to relieve this patient's symptoms?
A) Beta-adrenergic antagonist
B) Dopamine receptor agonist
C) Muscarinic receptor antagonist
D) Opioid mu-receptor agonist
E) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
Correct Answer:
Verified
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