A 56-year-old man is hospitalized due to worsening fever, chills, and perirectal pain. Physical examination reveals a large perirectal abscess. Empiric antibiotics are begun, and surgical drainage is planned. The patient receives succinylcholine and propofol prior to the procedure. The intraoperative course is uneventful, but postoperative spontaneous recovery of respiration and voluntary muscle activity does not occur. Mechanical respiratory support is continued, and several hours later, the patient is successfully weaned from the ventilator. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's postoperative complications?
A) Decreased renal clearance
B) Drug redistribution to other tissues
C) Genetic polymorphism
D) Impaired hepatic function
E) Neuromuscular junction autoantibodies
Correct Answer:
Verified
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