A 34-year-old woman with polycystic ovary syndrome comes to the office with her husband for treatment of infertility. The patient has been unable to conceive despite having unprotected sexual intercourse several times a week for the past 2 years. Her menses are irregular and occur every 2-3 months, consistent with chronic anovulation. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. The patient takes no medications and has no allergies. BMI is 32 kg/m2. Physical examination shows coarse hair on her chin and abdomen. The patient is initially prescribed clomiphene therapy but fails to conceive. She then receives ovulation induction therapy with a short course of menotropins followed by a single injection of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) . The use of hCG therapy primarily mimics which of the following physiologic events?
A) Estrogen surge
B) FSH surge
C) LH surge
D) Progesterone surge
E) Prolactin surge
Correct Answer:
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