A 32-year-old woman comes to the office due to 6 months of persistent diarrhea. She has had 8-10 episodes a day of tea-colored, odorless, watery stools. The symptoms have persisted despite a lactose-free diet and a fasting trial. The patient has had no abdominal pain, fever, or vomiting. Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) . Abdominal examination is unremarkable. Sampling of her gastric contents shows a total lack of gastric acid secretion. Somatostatin treatment promptly relieves the symptoms. An excess of which of the following hormones is most likely responsible for this patient's symptoms?
A) Cholecystokinin
B) Gastrin
C) Ghrelin
D) Glucagon
E) Motilin
F) Vasoactive intestinal peptide
Correct Answer:
Verified
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