A 66-year-old woman is hospitalized for the worst headache of her life. CT scan of the head without contrast shows diffuse subarachnoid hemorrhage with intraventricular extension and hydrocephalus. Because of the patient's deteriorating mental status and agitation, her trachea is cannulated and a central venous catheter is placed.
Which of the following is the most effective strategy to decrease this patient's risk for developing catheter-related infection?
A) Chlorhexidine baths
B) Internal jugular catheter placement versus subclavian site
C) Prophylactic systemic antibiotics
D) Routine catheter replacement every 3 days
E) Triple-lumen versus single-lumen placement
Correct Answer:
Verified
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