A 55-year-old man comes to the physician complaining of an episode of rectal bleeding. His past medical history includes chronic constipation for which he takes over-the-counter laxatives. He also has a history of intravenous drug use and an episode of tricuspid and mitral valve infective endocarditis 15 years ago. Since that episode, he has stopped using illicit drugs. The patient has a 20-pack-year smoking history and drinks 1-2 cans of beer daily. Family history is not significant. He is allergic to penicillin.
His vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Stool is positive for occult blood.
The patient is scheduled for a colonoscopy.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Cephalexin prior to the procedure
B) Clindamycin prior to the procedure
C) Perform transthoracic echocardiogram
D) Proceed with the colonoscopy
E) Vancomycin prior to the procedure
Correct Answer:
Verified
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