A 64-year-old man comes to the office with pain and swelling over the left upper chest for 7 days. He also had an episode of fever, but no cough, sore throat, abdominal pain, diarrhea, or urinary symptoms. Five months ago, the patient had a single-lead implantable cardioverter-defibrillator placed due to a sudden cardiac arrest. His other medical problems include nonischemic cardiomyopathy (ejection fraction, 20%) and chronic kidney disease.
Temperature is 36.7 (98 F) , blood pressure is 109/70 mm Hg, pulse is 70/min, and respirations are 16/min. Pulse oximetry is 95% on room air. Examination shows clear lungs and normal S1 and S2. Swelling, erythema, and tenderness are present over the defibrillator generator. A small amount of discharge is seen through an erosion of the healed suture line.
Leukocytes are 11,200/mm3. Two sets of blood cultures are negative after 2 days.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Incision and drainage followed by antibiotics
B) Removal of the generator and lead followed by antibiotics
C) Removal of the generator followed by antibiotics
D) Treatment with anti-staphylococcal antibiotic for 6 weeks
Correct Answer:
Verified
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