A 72-year-old obese woman is scheduled for right knee replacement due to osteoarthritis. She can barely walk due to severe knee pain. She has no chest pain, dyspnea, palpitations, or syncope. The patient has a history of hypertension and diet-controlled diabetes mellitus. She had an uncomplicated cholecystectomy for symptomatic gallstones 10 years ago.
Blood pressure is 152/75 mm Hg and pulse is 75/min and regular. BMI is 32 kg/m2. A 3/6 late-peaking systolic murmur is heard at the right upper sternal border. S2 is soft with paradoxical splitting. The lungs are clear on auscultation. The abdomen is nontender. The right knee is deformed and tender with mild effusion. There is no peripheral edema.
ECG shows normal sinus rhythm, voltage criteria for left ventricular hypertrophy, and T-wave inversion in leads I, aVL, and V6. Serum creatinine is 1.1 mg/dL.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Cardiac catheterization
B) Coronary calcium score by CT scan
C) No further testing before surgery
D) Pharmacologic stress testing
E) Transthoracic echocardiogram
Correct Answer:
Verified
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