A 56-year-old man complains of pain in his right groin 3 days after cardiac catheterization. He underwent the procedure after 2 months of intermittent chest pain. The coronary angiogram showed mild nonobstructive coronary disease. He has no fever, chest pain, leg numbness, or cold feet.
Vital signs are normal. The puncture site at the right femoral artery shows no erythema or ecchymosis. A tender mass is palpated below the right inguinal ligament near the puncture site. Bilateral popliteal and posterior tibial pulses are full.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Doppler ultrasound
B) Needle aspiration
C) Noncontrast CT scan of the pelvis
D) Oral antibiotics
E) Reassurance and local compresses
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q77: A 71-year-old man comes to the physician
Q78: A 60-year-old man comes to the office
Q79: A 30-year-old woman comes to the physician
Q80: An 84-year-old woman comes to the office
Q81: A 32-year-old man with known hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Q83: A 57-year-old woman undergoes mitral valve replacement
Q84: A 65-year-old man comes to the office
Q85: A 68-year-old man is admitted with acute
Q86: An 18-year-old soccer player is seen in
Q87: A 57-year-old man complains of right-sided leg
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents