A 22-year-old man comes to the office for evaluation of an abnormal ECG. The patient was seen recently at an urgent care clinic for chest pain and was diagnosed with costochondritis. The chest pain subsequently resolved with ibuprofen. He has no prior history of chest pain, palpitations, or lightheadedness. However, he had an abnormal ECG finding on that visit and was advised to follow-up with a primary care physician. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. He has no family history of heart disease or arrhythmia.
His blood pressure is 118/78 mm Hg and pulse is 88/min. Cardiopulmonary, abdominal, and neurological examination findings are unremarkable.
Resting ECG performed in the primary care office is shown here. The ECG from the urgent care clinic also has similar findings.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Amiodarone therapy
B) Beta blocker therapy
C) Catheter ablation procedure
D) Exercise ECG
E) Implantable defibrillator
Correct Answer:
Verified
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