A 62-year-old man complains of a black lesion and severe pain in his left leg. Initially the lesion was red, but over the past 3 days it has become black. He has end-stage renal disease due to diabetic nephropathy and has been on hemodialysis for the last 10 years. The patient's past medical history is also significant for hypertension, gout, and previous episodes of deep venous thrombosis requiring lifelong anticoagulation with warfarin.
His vitals signs are within normal limits. The leg lesion is shown in the picture below.
The lesion is exquisitely tender, but the area is not warm to palpation. Femoral and other peripheral pulses are 2+ bilaterally. There is no lymphadenopathy and no other skin lesions are noted. The remainder of the physical examination is within normal limits.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Calciphylaxis
B) Cholesterol atheroembolism
C) Necrobiosis lipoidica
D) Pyoderma gangrenosum
E) Warfarin-induced skin necrosis
Correct Answer:
Verified
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