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A 32-Year-Old Man Comes to the Physician Because of Facial

Question 190

Multiple Choice

A 32-year-old man comes to the physician because of facial pain and fever.  He developed a "cold" one week ago with symptoms consisting of mild malaise, sore throat, clear nasal discharge, and productive cough of small amounts of gray sputum.  He felt that he was improving, but now has 1 day of fever, chills, purulent nasal discharge, and facial fullness with pain.  His pain is worsened by bending over.  He also reports aching of his upper left molars.  He is in good health, takes no medications, and has no HIV risk factors.  He has no known drug allergies.
His temperature is 39.2 C (102.5 F) , pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 14/min.  He appears uncomfortable.  There is pain to light tapping over his left maxillary region.  There is swelling of his turbinates and purulent nasal discharge in his left naris.  There are no nasal polyps.  His pharynx shows no erythema or exudates.  Cardiopulmonary examination is within normal limits.
Which of the following is the best next step in management?


A) Amoxicillin-clavulanate
B) Azithromycin
C) No antibiotic therapy
D) Sinus films
E) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

Correct Answer:

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