A 40-year-old obese man with type 2 diabetes mellitus comes to the clinic complaining of abdominal distension, flatus, and an episode of low-volume fecal incontinence over the past 2 weeks. His last hemoglobin A1C 2 months ago was 7.5%. He has been treated with metformin for years and was recently started on exenatide and orlistat.
His blood pressure is 133/90 mm Hg and pulse is 82/min. Body mass index is 37 kg/m2. His abdomen is distended, tympanic, and nontender.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Discontinue exenatide and check serum lipase levels
B) Recommend lactose-free diet
C) Recommended low-fat diet
D) Start metoclopramide
E) Start simethicone
Correct Answer:
Verified
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