A 22-year-old Hispanic woman comes to the office for evaluation of amenorrhea and excessive body hair. She reports a weight gain of 5.4 kg (12 lb) over the last 2 years. Menarche was at age 11, and her menstrual cycles are irregular and heavy with <6 cycles a year. The patient previously had menses following a 10-day treatment with medroxyprogesterone acetate. She has no other medical problems and takes no medications.
Blood pressure is 144/80 mm Hg and pulse is 70/min. BMI is 32 kg/m2. The patient has frontal balding with coarse terminal hair on the face, upper chest, lower abdomen, and back. There are no purple striae. Breast examination shows no galactorrhea, and the thyroid is not enlarged on palpation.
Complete blood count, TSH, FSH, prolactin, and serum chemistry tests are normal. Serum total testosterone is 105 ng/dL (normal: 20-60) . Urine pregnancy test is negative.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) 17-hydroxyprogesterone level
B) Estradiol level
C) Pelvic ultrasound
D) Pituitary MRI
E) Plasma aldosterone to plasma renin activity ratio
Correct Answer:
Verified
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