A 27-year-old woman comes to the physician for ear pain and decreased hearing. Eight days ago, she developed rhinorrhea and a mild sore throat. Three days later, she had decreased hearing and pain in her right ear. The patient went to an urgent care clinic and was prescribed amoxicillin, which she has taken since. Despite the amoxicillin, she continues to have ear pain and diminished hearing. She has no ear drainage, fever, chills, or headache. She is in good health and her only medication is birth control pills.
Vital signs are normal. There is no nystagmus. Otoscopic examination shows a cloudy, red, bulging tympanic membrane. Hearing is diminished in her right ear. A tuning fork placed in the center of her head lateralizes to the right. There is no posterior ear pain. There is no pharyngeal abnormality on examination. Her neck is supple, and gait and balance appear normal. All cranial nerves are intact.
Which of the following is the best management for this patient?
A) Change to amoxicillin plus clavulanate
B) Continue amoxicillin for another 7 days
C) CT scan of temporal bone
D) Myringotomy with tympanostomy tube
E) Nasopharyngoscopy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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