A 38-year-old man comes to the physician because of difficulty walking for the past 1 week. His medical problems include hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, and osteoarthritis of the left hip. He underwent gastric bypass surgery 5 weeks ago for morbid obesity.
Neurological examination shows a left foot drop with strength in the left leg as follows: dorsiflexion 1/5, foot eversion 2/5, foot inversion 5/5, and plantar flexion 5/5. Sensory examination shows decreased pin prick sensation over the dorsum of the left foot. The remainder of the neurological examination is unremarkable.
Which of the following sites has this patient most likely injured?
A) Fibular head
B) Mid-thigh
C) Sciatic notch
D) Tarsal tunnel
E) Vertebral foramina
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q519: A 72-year-old man comes to the office
Q520: A patient consults the physician regarding her
Q521: A 78-year-old woman comes to the physician
Q522: A 43-year-old man seeks care for a
Q523: A 67-year-old man seeks medical attention because
Q525: A 70-year-old man comes to the office
Q526: An 18-year-old woman with a history of
Q527: A 64-year-old man seeks treatment for erectile
Q528: A previously healthy 35-year-old woman comes to
Q529: A 50-year-old woman comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents