A 30-year-old man comes to the office for worsening headaches. He has had episodic, unilateral, throbbing headaches associated with nausea and occasional vomiting for the past several years. Over the last 6 months, the headaches have become progressively worse and now occur twice a week. The patient usually takes abortive therapy at the onset of a headache, but recently he went to the emergency department 3 times due to uncontrolled pain. Other medical conditions include asthma and gastroesophageal reflux. He was hospitalized twice over the last year for asthma exacerbations but has never required endotracheal intubation. He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.
Vital signs are within normal limits. BMI is 32 kg/m2. Examination shows no abnormalities. Recent brain MRI was normal.
Which of the following is the best approach for long-term management of this patient's headaches?
A) Oxycodone
B) Prochlorperazine
C) Propranolol
D) Topiramate
E) Verapamil
Correct Answer:
Verified
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